Proof: f(z) is Entire & |f(z)|<|z|^{n} $\Rightarrow$ f(z) is a Polynomial

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that if a function f(z) is entire and satisfies the condition |f(z)| < |z|^n for all |z| > R, then f(z) must be a polynomial. The proof utilizes the Taylor series expansion of f(z) and Cauchy's Estimate to demonstrate that the coefficients of terms beyond the nth degree vanish. Specifically, it is established that |f^(n+1)(0)| is bounded by (n+1)!/R, leading to the conclusion that f^(n+1)(0) = 0, and consequently, f^(n+j) = 0 for all j ≥ 1.

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Homework Statement


Prove that if f(z) is entire and |f(z)|&lt;|z|^{n}, \forall |z|&gt; R then f(z) must be a polynomial.

Homework Equations



Taylor Series

f(z) =\displaystyle\sum_{j=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(j)}(z_{0})}{j!}(z-z_{0})^{j}

Cauchy's Estimate
If f is analytic interior to and on a circle C centered at z_{0}, radius R = |z-z_{0}|. Where M is the maximum value of |f(z)|.

\left| f^{j}(z_{0}) \right| \leq \frac{j!M}{R^{n}}

The Attempt at a Solution



f(z) is entire so it has Taylor series.

f(z) =\displaystyle\sum_{j=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(j)}(z_{0})}{j!}(z-z_{0})^{j}

I need to show that this series has a finite number of terms.

=\displaystyle\sum_{j=o}^{n}\frac{f^{(j)}(z_{0})}{j!}(z-z_{0})^{j}+\displaystyle\sum_{j=n+1}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(j)}(z_{0})}{j!}(z-z_{0})^{j}

The first sum is the polynomial part of the series, now to show the other part is zero. Consider the coefficient of the (n+1)th term:

a_{n+1}=\frac{f^{(n+1)}(z_{0})}{(n+1)!}

Because,

|f^{(n+1)}(z_{0})|\leq \frac{M(n+1)!}{R^{n+1}}

R is the radious of the circle around z0, and M is the max value of f(z).

|a_{n+1}|\leq MR^{-n-1}

Now I'm lost... Is M the same thing as |z|^{n}?
Is this even making any sense?

If M is at most |z|^{n} then can I say that for R large this term is zero?
 
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It making sense. Set z0 to be 0. M is the maximum of |f(z)| over the contour. Since the contour is a circle of radius R, |z|=R. |f(z)|<=|z|^n=R^n. So you have shown |f^(n+1)(0)|<=(n+1)!/R for any R. So f^(n+1)(0)=0. Now just change the argument at little to show that f^(n+j)=0 for j>=1.
 

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