Proof: Limit Comparison for a < b in Convergent Sequences

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a relationship between two sequences, \(a_n\) and \(b_n\), given their limits as \(a\) and \(b\) respectively, with the condition that \(a < b\). Participants are exploring the implications of this condition on the sequences themselves.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to establish whether \(a_n < b_n\) can be concluded directly from the limits of the sequences. Questions arise regarding specific cases, such as when \(b = 0\), and the validity of using the ratio \(a/b < 1\) as a basis for comparison.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with some participants expressing skepticism about the original claim that \(a_n < b_n\) can be proven. There is a suggestion that the relationship holds only for sufficiently large \(n\), and examples are being discussed to illustrate this point. Guidance has been offered regarding the use of limits and the definition of convergence.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the limitations of their arguments, particularly in relation to the behavior of the sequences for smaller values of \(n\). The discussion highlights the need for careful consideration of the definitions and conditions under which the sequences are compared.

khdani
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Hello,
Please help me prove the following:
given lim(an)=a and lim(bn)=b if a<b prove that an < bn.

can i say that if a/b < 1 than an<bn ?
 
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What if b = 0?
 
if b=0 than a is negative and probably an < bn
so it still holds, but how do i prove that?
 
Consider the sequence an - bn. What can you say about this sequence?
 
can I say that
lim(an-bn) = (a-b) < 0
hence an < bn ?
 
You can, but it doesn't convince me that an < bn. Also, I think that what you're trying to prove is false.
 
khdani said:
Hello,
Please help me prove the following:
given lim(an)=a and lim(bn)=b if a<b prove that an < bn.
You can't prove it- it isn't true. What you can prove is that for n large enough, an< bn. Use the definition of limit with [itex]\epsilon[/itex] less that half the difference between a and b.

But you cannot say anything about an and bn for smaller values of n.

can i say that if a/b < 1 than an<bn ?
No, that's not true either. Again, it is only true for "sufficiently large" n.

Got example, an= 1/n converges to 1 while bn= 1/2n for n= 1 to 1000000, bn= 2- 1/n for n> 1000000 converges to 2 (so a= 0< 2= b and a/b= 1/2< 1) but an< bn only for n> 1000000. And you should be able to see how to make examples where that is true only for n> whatever number you want.
 

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