Sequences and existence of limit 2

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the existence of the limit of a bounded sequence \( a_n \) under specific conditions involving another sequence \( b_n \). It is established that if \( 0 < b_n \leq \frac{1}{2} b_{n-1} \) and \( \lim_{n \to \infty} b_n = b \), then \( b \) converges to 0. The conclusion drawn is that if \( a_{n+1} \geq a_n - b_n \), then \( \lim_{n \to \infty} a_n \) must exist, as the sequence \( a_n \) becomes constant and converges.

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  • Understanding of bounded sequences in real analysis
  • Familiarity with limits and convergence of sequences
  • Knowledge of decreasing sequences and their limits
  • Basic principles of mathematical proofs
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  • Study the properties of bounded sequences in real analysis
  • Learn about the convergence criteria for sequences
  • Explore the concept of monotonic sequences and their limits
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Students of mathematics, particularly those studying real analysis, as well as educators looking to enhance their understanding of sequence convergence and limit proofs.

Felafel
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Homework Statement



Let an be a bounded sequence and bn such that

the limit bn as n→∞ is b and

0<bn ≤ 1/2 (bn-1)

Prove that if:

an+1 ≥ an - bn,

then

lim an
n→∞

exists.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution




as 0<bn ≤ 1/2 (bn-1) the sequence bn is decreasing.
thus its limit, b, is 0 (can i assume that?)

Then, assuming an converges to a limit, say p, the equation is:

p ≥ p - b where b=0

p ≥ p is true for every p.

Then, an is constant and therefore converges.

Does is it work like that?
 
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Felafel said:

Homework Statement



Let an be a bounded sequence and bn such that

the limit bn as n→∞ is b and

0<bn ≤ 1/2 (bn-1)

Prove that if:

an+1 ≥ an - bn,

then

lim an
n→∞

exists.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution




as 0<bn ≤ 1/2 (bn-1) the sequence bn is decreasing.
thus its limit, b, is 0 (can i assume that?)

Then, assuming an converges to a limit, say p, the equation is:
You can't assume that an converges. That's what you need to prove.
p ≥ p - b where b=0

p ≥ p is true for every p.

Then, an is constant and therefore converges.

Does is it work like that?
 

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