A Proof of covariant derivative of spinor

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The discussion centers on the definition of the covariant derivative for spinors using the spin connection and the need for a proof of its covariant transformation. A reference is provided, specifically Weinberg's "Gravitation and Cosmology" (1972), section 12.5, which is suggested as a source for the proof. Participants also engage in a technical exchange regarding specific terms in the proof, particularly the cancellation of the partial mu of S(Λ). The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the mathematical details involved in the proof. Overall, the thread seeks clarity on the transformation properties of the covariant derivative for spinors.
baba26
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TL;DR
Looking for a proof that the covariant derivative defined using spin connection transforms as expected.
I have read that we can define covariant derivative for spinors using the spin connection. But I can't see its proof in any textbook. Can anyone point to a reference where it is proved that such a definition indeed transforms covariantly ?
 
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baba26 said:
TL;DR Summary: Looking for a proof that the covariant derivative defined using spin connection transforms as expected.

I have read that we can define covariant derivative for spinors using the spin connection. But I can't see its proof in any textbook. Can anyone point to a reference where it is proved that such a definition indeed transforms covariantly ?
There are many textbook references. One example: Weinberg Gravitation and Cosmology (1972), section 12.5.
 
Does this answer your question, baba26?

Covariant derivative using spin connection 1 of 2.jpg

Covariant derivative using spin connection 2 of 2.jpg
 
@pellis , in the (second)last line of the proof, why did you drop the partial mu of S(Λ) term ? Is it zero for some reason ?
I am talking about the line before "Thus".
 
@baba26 Yes, good that you noticed this, and it does cancel out, as follows:
Covariant derivative using spin connection Reply to query.jpg
 
Moderator's note: Spin-off from another thread due to topic change. In the second link referenced, there is a claim about a physical interpretation of frame field. Consider a family of observers whose worldlines fill a region of spacetime. Each of them carries a clock and a set of mutually orthogonal rulers. Each observer points in the (timelike) direction defined by its worldline's tangent at any given event along it. What about the rulers each of them carries ? My interpretation: each...

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