Proof: polynomial with integer solutions

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that if a polynomial \( f(x) \) with integer coefficients satisfies \( f(a) = f(b) = f(c) = -1 \) for three distinct integers \( a, b, c \), then the equation \( f(x) = 0 \) cannot have integer solutions. Participants explore various approaches to the proof, including the use of lemmas and divisibility arguments.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion about how to proceed with the proof and mentions a known fact about integer solutions being divisors of the constant term in polynomials.
  • Another participant introduces a lemma stating that for any two different integers \( m \) and \( n \), \( (m-n) \) divides \( (f(m) - f(n)) \), and attempts to apply this lemma to the given conditions.
  • Participants discuss the implications of assuming there exists an integer \( d \) such that \( f(d) = 0 \) and how this relates to the lemma.
  • One participant notes that the differences \( (d-a), (d-b), (d-c) \) must divide 1, leading to the conclusion that at least two of these differences must be equal, which contradicts the distinctness of \( a, b, c \).
  • Another participant questions the interpretation of the "opposite proposition" and seeks clarification on how the contradiction proves the original statement.
  • Several participants agree that the contradiction reached indicates that no integer \( d \) can satisfy \( f(d) = 0 \) under the given conditions.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the approach taken to reach a contradiction, but there is some uncertainty regarding the terminology used and the interpretation of certain steps in the proof. The discussion remains somewhat unresolved in terms of clarity on specific terms and concepts.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the meaning of terms like "lemma" and the distinction between assumptions and conditions in the context of the proof.

Who May Find This Useful

This discussion may be useful for individuals interested in polynomial functions, integer solutions, and proof techniques in mathematics, particularly those exploring the properties of polynomials with integer coefficients.

Johulus
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I am stuck with one proof and I need some help because I don't have any idea how to proceed at this moment. The task says: If f(x) is a polynomial with integer coefficients, and if f(a)=f(b)=f(c)=-1, where a,b,c are three unequal integers, the equation f(x)=0 does not have integer solutions. Prove!

I know that if there is a polynomial with integer coefficients and if it has integer solutions, then those solutions are divisors of coefficient that does not have an 'x' next to it. But, I don't know how to use that fact along with f(a)=f(b)=f(c)=-1. So, I'm currently stuck and I hope someone could help me do something here.
 
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Let's begin by writing:

$$f(x)=\sum_{k=0}^{n}a_kx^k$$ where $a_k\in\mathbb{Z}$

Now, let's propose the following lemma:

For any two different integers $m$ and $n$, we must have:

$$(m-n)|(f(m)-f(n))$$

In order to prove this, observe that:

$$f(m)-f(n)=\sum_{k=1}^{n}a_k(m^k-n^k)$$

Since $$(m-n)|(m^k-n^k)$$ for all $0<k$, the lemma follows.

Okay, we are given:

$$f(a)=f(b)=f(c)=-1$$

Now suppose:

$$f(d)=0$$ where $d$ is an integer distinct from $a,\,b,\,c$.

What do we then obtain from our lemma?
 
MarkFL said:
Let's begin by writing:

$$f(x)=\sum_{k=0}^{n}a_kx^k$$ where $a_k\in\mathbb{Z}$

Now, let's propose the following lemma:

For any two different integers $m$ and $n$, we must have:

$$(m-n)|(f(m)-f(n))$$

In order to prove this, observe that:

$$f(m)-f(n)=\sum_{k=1}^{n}a_k(m^k-n^k)$$

Since $$(m-n)|(m^k-n^k)$$ for all $0<k$, the lemma follows.

Okay, we are given:

$$f(a)=f(b)=f(c)=-1$$

Now suppose:

$$f(d)=0$$ where $d$ is an integer distinct from $a,\,b,\,c$.

What do we then obtain from our lemma?

I would just like to say before I write anything else that I am not that experienced with this but I would really like to figure this proof out.

The first problem is that I am not that familiar with the meaning of the word lemma. But I looked for its meaning now,so I guess it's kind of clear what it means now. And I understand why that lemma you proposed is true, but I am not sure how it relates to proving that this polynomial can't have integer solutions for given condition. Well, the only thing that I can observe here is:

Our proposed lemma states that:

$$(m-n)|(f(m)-f(n)), \forall m,n\in\mathbb{Z}, m\neq n$$

The condition that task states is:

$$a,b,c\in\mathbb{Z}, a \neq b \neq c$$

So, the condition of lemma $$m \neq n $$ is satisfied if $$ m,n\in{\{a,b,c\}} $$.

We know that $$f(a)=f(b)=f(c)=-1 $$ and let's propose that $$f(d)=0, d\in\mathbb{Z}, d \neq a \neq b \neq c $$. The only thing that I can observe now is:

$$ (a-b)|(f(a)-f(b)) \implies \dfrac{f(a)-f(b)}{a-b}=\dfrac{-1-(-1)}{a-b}=\dfrac{0}{a-b}=0 $$

So, $$ (a-b)|(f(a)-f(b))$$ is true. But...

$$ (a-d)|(f(a)-f(d)) \implies \dfrac{f(a)-f(d)}{a-d}=\dfrac{-1-0}{a-d}=\dfrac{-1}{a-d} $$

And $$ (a-d)|(f(a)-f(d))$$ is true only if $$ a-d \in{\{1,-1\}} \implies d=a-1$$ or $$ d=a+1 $$.

Anyway, I probably got into a completely wrong direction and I don't know what to do with it now. Maybe I should just take a rest from it to clear out my thoughts.
 
I really just meant "lemma" as a theorem we could use in our proof. So, what I had in mind was to then observe that:

$$(d-a)|(f(d)-f(a))=0-(-1) = 1$$

$$(d-b)|(f(d)-f(b))=0-(-1) = 1$$

$$(d-c)|(f(d)-f(c))=0-(-1) = 1$$

So, these 3 differences $(d-a,\,d-b,\,d-c)$ all divide 1. How many divisors does 1 have?
 
MarkFL said:
I really just meant "lemma" as a theorem we could use in our proof. So, what I had in mind was to then observe that:

$$(d-a)|(f(d)-f(a))=0-(-1) = 1$$

$$(d-b)|(f(d)-f(b))=0-(-1) = 1$$

$$(d-c)|(f(d)-f(c))=0-(-1) = 1$$

So, these 3 differences $(d-a,\,d-b,\,d-c)$ all divide 1. How many divisors does 1 have?

1 can be divided by -1 and 1... right?

Since

$$(d-a)|(f(d)-f(a)) \qquad (d-b)|(f(d)-f(b)) \qquad (d-c)|(f(d)-f(c))$$

$$ (f(d)-f(a))=(f(d)-f(b))=(f(d)-f(c))=1 $$, that is:

$$(d-a)|1 \qquad (d-b)|1 \qquad (d-c)|1$$

Since 1 has two divisors -1 and 1, then at least two of $$(d-a), \, (d-b), \, (d-c)$$ have to be the same.
Let's suppose $$(d-a)=(d-b)=-1 \, (d-c)=1$$. Then we have: $$(d-a)=(d-b) \implies a=b $$.
But, the condition at the beginning states that $$ a \neq b \neq c $$. So, this is in contradiction. Can I draw any conclusion from that?
 
Yes, good! (Yes)

Since we have found that $a,\,b,\,c,\,$ cannot all be distinct, we have proved the given proposition by contradiction. We started by positing the opposite proposition is true, and then showed that such an assumption leads to a contradiction.
 
MarkFL said:
Yes, good! (Yes)

Since we have found that $a,\,b,\,c,\,$ cannot all be distinct, we have proved the given proposition by contradiction. We started by positing the opposite proposition is true, and then showed that such an assumption leads to a contradiction.

I am still not completely sure how $$ a=b $$ contradicted to $$ a \neq b \neq c $$ proves that $$ \nexists x\in\mathbb{Z}: f(x)=0 $$.

I am not sure what do you mean when referring to 'opposite proposition'? That kind of bothers me. Opposite of what?

I will have a look at it tomorrow.

But thank you very much on your effort.
 
Essentially, we were asked to show that there is no $d$ such that $f(d)=0$...so we made the assumption that there IS a $d$ such that $f(d)=0$, and then demonstrated that this assumption led to a contradiction of the conditions of the problem. This effectively proves that there is no $d$ such that $f(d)=0$, subject to the conditions of the problem...and this is what we were asked to do. :D
 
MarkFL said:
Essentially, we were asked to show that there is no $d$ such that $f(d)=0$...so we made the assumption that there IS a $d$ such that $f(d)=0$, and then demonstrated that this assumption led to a contradiction of the conditions of the problem. This effectively proves that there is no $d$ such that $f(d)=0$, subject to the conditions of the problem...and this is what we were asked to do. :D

Thank you so very much :) ! You've helped a big deal. I understand everything now. I've mixed up conditions with assumption and everything but now it's all clear.
 

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