Undergrad Proof that every basis has the same cardinality

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the proof of Lemma 1, which asserts that every basis of a vector space has the same cardinality. Participants explore the construction of a new basis ##B_1## by removing an element from a finite basis ##A## and adding it to a set ##S_1##. The key argument hinges on the assumption that if the cardinality of basis ##A## (denoted as m) is less than that of basis ##B## (denoted as n), then there exists an element in ##A## not present in ##B##. The proof also addresses concerns regarding infinite bases, specifically the implications of different cardinalities between countable and uncountable sets.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of vector space theory
  • Familiarity with the concept of basis in linear algebra
  • Knowledge of cardinality and its implications in set theory
  • Experience with finite and infinite sets
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of vector spaces and their bases
  • Learn about cardinality in set theory, focusing on countable vs. uncountable sets
  • Examine proofs related to linear independence and spanning sets
  • Explore the implications of the Axiom of Choice in infinite dimensional spaces
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Mathematicians, students of linear algebra, and anyone interested in the foundational aspects of vector spaces and set theory.

member 587159
Hello all.

I have a question concerning following proof, Lemma 1.

http://planetmath.org/allbasesforavectorspacehavethesamecardinalitySo, we suppose that A and B are finite and then we construct a new basis ##B_1## for V by removing an element. So they choose ##a_1 \in A## and add it to ##S_1##. How do we know for sure that ##a_1## is not yet in B? Can we say this because we suppose that m < n, thus there is certainly such an element?(to derive a contradiction)

Thanks!
 
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It doesn't matter if ##a_1## is already in ##B##. Say ##a_1=b_1##. Then, certainly, ##B_1=\{a_1,b_2,\dots,b_m\}(=B)## spans ##V##. This is just a special case of the argument in the proof.
 
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Math_QED said:
Hello all.

I have a question concerning following proof, Lemma 1.

http://planetmath.org/allbasesforavectorspacehavethesamecardinalitySo, we suppose that A and B are finite and then we construct a new basis ##B_1## for V by removing an element. So they choose ##a_1 \in A## and add it to ##S_1##. How do we know for sure that ##a_1## is not yet in B? Can we say this because we suppose that m < n, thus there is certainly such an element?(to derive a contradiction)

Thanks!
It doesn't matter whether ##a_1 \in B## or not. We only need a ##b_1## with non-zero coefficient to replace ##b_1## by ##a_1## and the fact that it spans ##V##. Let ##a_1 = \beta_1 b_1 + \dots \beta_m b_m##. If all ##\beta_i = 0 ## then ##a_1= 0## which we ruled out. So without loss of generality, let ##\beta_1 \neq 0##. Thus ##b_1 = \beta'_1 a_1 + \beta_2' b_2 + \dots \beta'_m b_m## and it can be replaced. We don't need to bother linear dependencies here.

Remark: My difficulty with the proof is in the first part, where ##A## and ##B## are infinite. This part is IMO only true, if ##|\infty| = |\infty| ## regardless which class of infinity is meant. However, what is if ##A## is uncountably infinite and ##B## countable? Why can't this happen?
 
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