Prove arccos(-x)+arccos(x) = pi

In summary: That's what you are trying to prove. You don't usually start with that, unless you are claiming it is true from the geometry. But in that case you don't need the stuff below.I don't see it. I think epenguin was trying to give you a hint and you are not supposed to start with the statement you are trying to prove. You are supposed to prove it from the given information. So, try starting from the beginning again without assuming the statement is true.
  • #1
GreyNoise
Gold Member
32
6

Homework Statement


From an old edition of the Anton calculus text, I am asked to prove
cos-1(-x) + cos-1(x) = π
or equivalently
cos-1(-x) = π - cos-1(x)

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Earlier I proved that sin-1(x) was odd by noting sin-1(sin(x)) = -sin-1(sin(-x)), so I have tried to start the problem from the same approach, but none of my attempts have been insightful.
I started with cos-1(cos(x)) = x and cos-1(cos(-x)) = -x but I am not going anywhere with it. I'm stuck. It makes geometric sense that the sum cos-1(-x) + cos-1(x) is in fact π when viewing a graph of cos-1(x). But how do I prove this one? It appears that I am not supposed to use derivatives of the inverses to solve this (they are covered after this section in the text). It is from Anton's Brief Edition 1981, p 462. Any hints or the like are appreciated.
 
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  • #2
:blushing:
 
Last edited:
  • #3
GreyNoise said:

Homework Statement


From an old edition of the Anton calculus text, I am asked to prove
cos-1(-x) + cos-1(x) = π
or equivalently
cos-1(-x) = π - cos-1(x)

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Earlier I proved that sin-1(x) was odd by noting sin-1(sin(x)) = -sin-1(sin(-x)), so I have tried to start the problem from the same approach, but none of my attempts have been insightful.
I started with cos-1(cos(x)) = x and cos-1(cos(-x)) = -x but I am not going anywhere with it. I'm stuck. It makes geometric sense that the sum cos-1(-x) + cos-1(x) is in fact π when viewing a graph of cos-1(x). But how do I prove this one? It appears that I am not supposed to use derivatives of the inverses to solve this (they are covered after this section in the text). It is from Anton's Brief Edition 1981, p 462. Any hints or the like are appreciated.

Try calling ##\alpha = \cos^{-1}(-x)## and ##\beta = \cos^{-1}(x)##. Convince yourself that the angles on both sides of your equation are in ##[0,\pi]## and then check that they have equal cosines.
 
  • #4
Thank you epenguin and LCKurtz. I thought over your hints, but I was unable to wrap my head around them; I tried the following.

(1) [itex] \alpha [/itex] and [itex] \beta [/itex] are angles of a right triangle : given

(2) [itex] \alpha + \beta + \frac{\pi}{2} = \pi [/itex] : sum of angles is [itex] \pi [/itex] for a triangle

(3) [itex] \cos^{-1}(\cos(\alpha)) + \cos^{-1}(\cos(\beta)) + \frac{\pi}{2} = \pi [/itex] : substitute definition for inverse

(4) [itex] \cos^{-1}(\cos(\alpha)) + \cos^{-1}(\cos(\pi/2-\alpha)) + \frac{\pi}{2} = \pi [/itex] : because [itex] \beta = \frac{\pi}{2} - \alpha [/itex]

(5) [itex] \cos^{-1}(\cos(\alpha)) + \cos^{-1}(\sin(\alpha)) + \frac{\pi}{2} = \pi [/itex] : because [itex] \cos(\pi/2-\alpha) = \sin(\alpha) [/itex]

From step (3), I also tried
(4) [itex] \cos^{-1}(\cos(\alpha)) + \cos^{-1}(\cos(-\beta)) + \frac{\pi}{2} = \pi [/itex] : because [itex] \cos(x) [/itex] is even

But setting

[itex] -\cos(\alpha) = \cos(-\beta)) [/itex]

seems to beg the question and I don't know how get through that. Can you tell me what I am missing here?
 
  • #5
GreyNoise said:

Homework Statement


From an old edition of the Anton calculus text, I am asked to prove
cos-1(-x) + cos-1(x) = π
or equivalently
cos-1(-x) = π - cos-1(x)

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Earlier I proved that sin-1(x) was odd by noting sin-1(sin(x)) = -sin-1(sin(-x)), so I have tried to start the problem from the same approach, but none of my attempts have been insightful.
I started with cos-1(cos(x)) = x and cos-1(cos(-x)) = -x but I am not going anywhere with it. I'm stuck. It makes geometric sense that the sum cos-1(-x) + cos-1(x) is in fact π when viewing a graph of cos-1(x). But how do I prove this one? It appears that I am not supposed to use derivatives of the inverses to solve this (they are covered after this section in the text). It is from Anton's Brief Edition 1981, p 462. Any hints or the like are appreciated.

For notational convenience below, say you want to prove ##\arccos(a) + \arccos(-a) = \pi##. Draw a picture: locate the points ##P_1, P_2## on the unit circle whose x-coordinates are ##x= a## and ##x = -a##. Now stare at the picture.
 
  • #6
@GreyNoise: You are trying to show ##\alpha = \pi - \beta##. Take the cosine of both sides, written just like that and simplify it.
 
  • #7
Ray Vickson said:
For notational convenience below, say you want to prove ##\arccos(a) + \arccos(-a) = \pi##. Draw a picture: locate the points ##P_1, P_2## on the unit circle whose x-coordinates are ##x= a## and ##x = -a##. Now stare at the picture.

I think I got it! The unit circle will carry x=a to x=-a if we sweep [itex] \pi [/itex] rads (thnx Ray V.), so the angles [itex] \cos^{-1}(x) [/itex] and [itex] \cos^{-1}(-x) [/itex] are supplementary (thnx LCKurtz). So I proceeded as follows:

(1) [itex] \alpha + \beta = \pi [/itex]
(2) [itex] \cos^{-1}(\cos\alpha) + \cos^{-1}(\cos\beta) = \pi [/itex] : definition of inverse
(3) [itex] \beta = \pi - \alpha [/itex] : subtract [itex] \alpha [/itex] from (1)
(4) [itex] \cos(\pi - \alpha) = \cos\pi\cos\alpha+\sin\pi\sin\alpha [/itex] : trig identity
(5) [itex] \cos(\pi - \alpha) = -\cos\alpha [/itex] : simplify (4)
(6) [itex] \cos\beta = -\cos\alpha [/itex] : sub (3) into (5)
(7) [itex] \cos^{-1}(\cos\alpha) + \cos^{-1}(-\cos\alpha) = \pi [/itex] : sub (6) into (2)
(8) [itex] x = \cos\alpha [/itex] so
(9) [itex] \cos^{-1}(x) + \cos^{-1}(-x) = \pi [/itex]

Wella
 
  • #8
GreyNoise said:
I think I got it! The unit circle will carry x=a to x=-a if we sweep [itex] \pi [/itex] rads (thnx Ray V.), so the angles [itex] \cos^{-1}(x) [/itex] and [itex] \cos^{-1}(-x) [/itex] are supplementary (thnx LCKurtz). So I proceeded as follows:

(1) [itex] \alpha + \beta = \pi [/itex]

That's what you are trying to prove. You don't usually start with that, unless you are claiming it is true from the geometry. But in that case you don't need the stuff below.

(2) [itex] \cos^{-1}(\cos\alpha) + \cos^{-1}(\cos\beta) = \pi [/itex] : definition of inverse
(3) [itex] \beta = \pi - \alpha [/itex] : subtract [itex] \alpha [/itex] from (1)
(4) [itex] \cos(\pi - \alpha) = \cos\pi\cos\alpha+\sin\pi\sin\alpha [/itex] : trig identity
(5) [itex] \cos(\pi - \alpha) = -\cos\alpha [/itex] : simplify (4)
(6) [itex] \cos\beta = -\cos\alpha [/itex] : sub (3) into (5)
(7) [itex] \cos^{-1}(\cos\alpha) + \cos^{-1}(-\cos\alpha) = \pi [/itex] : sub (6) into (2)
(8) [itex] x = \cos\alpha [/itex] so
(9) [itex] \cos^{-1}(x) + \cos^{-1}(-x) = \pi [/itex]
So you ended up with what you started with.

So, one more time, try taking the cosine both sides of ##\alpha =\pi - \beta##. If the angles have equal cosines in that range then the angles are equal. It is two simple steps and you don't have to use any geometry.
 
  • #9
LCKurtz said:
So, one more time, try taking the cosine both sides of α=πβ

Is this what you have in mind for me LCK?

[itex] \alpha = \pi - \beta [/itex]
[itex] \cos\alpha = cos(\pi - \beta) [/itex]
[itex] \cos\alpha = -cos\beta\hspace{10mm}[/itex]:by difference trig identity so
[itex] \cos^{-1}(\cos\alpha) = \cos^{-1}(-cos\beta) [/itex]

Now sub back for [itex] \alpha [/itex] and [itex] \beta [/itex] at the top I get

[itex] \cos^{-1}(-cos\beta) = \pi - \cos^{-1}(cos\beta) [/itex]

which has the form

[itex] \cos^{-1}(-x) = \pi - \cos^{-1}(x) [/itex]
 
  • #10
What about differentiating arcos(-x) and arcos(x) separately and noting that the derivatives are the equal?
 
  • #11
GreyNoise said:
Is this what you have in mind for me LCK?

[itex] \alpha = \pi - \beta [/itex]
[itex] \cos\alpha = cos(\pi - \beta) [/itex]
[itex] \cos\alpha = -cos\beta\hspace{10mm}[/itex]:by difference trig identity so
[itex] \cos^{-1}(\cos\alpha) = \cos^{-1}(-cos\beta) [/itex]

Now sub back for [itex] \alpha [/itex] and [itex] \beta [/itex] at the top I get

[itex] \cos^{-1}(-cos\beta) = \pi - \cos^{-1}(cos\beta) [/itex]

which has the form

[itex] \cos^{-1}(-x) = \pi - \cos^{-1}(x) [/itex]
No. You are still overcomplicating it and starting with what you are trying to prove. We are starting by calling$$
\cos^{-1}(-x) = \alpha,~\cos^{-1}(x) = \beta$$
You are trying to show ##\alpha = \pi - \beta## by showing they have equal cosines. So you start by taking the cosines of both sides. The left side gives you ##\cos\alpha## and the right side gives you ##\cos(\pi - \beta) = -\cos(\beta)##, as you have shown. So far so good. So now if ##\cos\alpha = -\cos(\beta)## you are done. From your given, what is ##\cos\alpha## and what is ##\cos\beta##? Give the answers in terms of ##x##. Does ##\cos\alpha=-\cos\beta##?
 
  • #12
AfterSunShine said:
What about differentiating arcos(-x) and arcos(x) separately and noting that the derivatives are the equal?

This section calls for to not use differentiation; I've done it that way before (long time ago), but this is a new restriction, no derivatives.
 
  • #13
LCKurtz said:
No. You are still overcomplicating it and starting with what you are trying to prove. We are starting by calling$$
\cos^{-1}(-x) = \alpha,~\cos^{-1}(x) = \beta$$
You are trying to show ##\alpha = \pi - \beta## by showing they have equal cosines. So you start by taking the cosines of both sides. The left side gives you ##\cos\alpha## and the right side gives you ##\cos(\pi - \beta) = -\cos(\beta)##, as you have shown. So far so good. So now if ##\cos\alpha = -\cos(\beta)## you are done. From your given, what is ##\cos\alpha## and what is ##\cos\beta##? Give the answers in terms of ##x##. Does ##\cos\alpha=-\cos\beta##?
LCKurtz said:
So, one more time, try taking the cosine both sides of α=π−β
Yes, I did get the sinking feeling I was begging the question after I posted
So how about this?

given:[itex]\hspace{10mm}\cos^{-1}(-x) = \alpha[/itex] and [itex]\cos^{-1}(x) = \beta[/itex]
show:[itex]\hspace{10mm}\alpha = \pi - \beta [/itex]

from given
[itex]\cos\alpha = -x[/itex]
[itex]\cos\beta = x\hspace{5mm}[/itex] so
[itex]\cos\alpha = -cos\beta[/itex]

[itex]\cos\alpha = \cos(\pi - \beta) = -cos\beta\hspace{10mm}[/itex]:trig diff id
[itex]\cos\alpha = -cos\beta\hspace{10mm}[/itex]:same as given

so
[itex] \alpha = \pi - \beta [/itex]
 
  • #14
GreyNoise said:
Yes, I did get the sinking feeling I was begging the question after I posted
So how about this?

given:[itex]\hspace{10mm}\cos^{-1}(-x) = \alpha[/itex] and [itex]\cos^{-1}(x) = \beta[/itex]
show:[itex]\hspace{10mm}\alpha = \pi - \beta [/itex]

from given
[itex]\cos\alpha = -x[/itex]
[itex]\cos\beta = x\hspace{5mm}[/itex] so
[itex]\cos\alpha = -cos\beta[/itex]

[itex]\cos\alpha = \cos(\pi - \beta) = -cos\beta\hspace{10mm}[/itex]:trig diff id
[itex]\cos\alpha = -cos\beta\hspace{10mm}[/itex]:same as given
so
[itex] \alpha = \pi - \beta [/itex]
Yes, you have now got all the steps, but that is a very awkward arrangement of steps for an argument. Since you seem to now have it figured out, I will suggest a more reasonable way to write it up:

Let ##\alpha=\cos^{-1}(-x)## and ##\beta = \cos^{-1}x##. To show ##\alpha = \pi -\beta##.

##\alpha## and ##\pi - \beta## are both in ##[0,\pi]##, so if their cosines are equal, the angles are equal.

##\cos\alpha = -x##
##cos(\pi - \beta) = \cos\pi\cos\beta+\sin\pi\sin\beta = -\cos\beta = -x##
Therefore ##\cos\alpha = \cos(\pi -\beta)## so ##\alpha = \pi - \beta##, and the proof is finished
 
  • #15
LCKurtz said:
Yes, you have now got all the steps, but that is a very awkward arrangement of steps for an argument. Since you seem to now have it figured out, I will suggest a more reasonable way to write it up:

Let ##\alpha=\cos^{-1}(-x)## and ##\beta = \cos^{-1}x##. To show ##\alpha = \pi -\beta##.

##\alpha## and ##\pi - \beta## are both in ##[0,\pi]##, so if their cosines are equal, the angles are equal.

##\cos\alpha = -x##
##cos(\pi - \beta) = \cos\pi\cos\beta+\sin\pi\sin\beta = -\cos\beta = -x##
Therefore ##\cos\alpha = \cos(\pi -\beta)## so ##\alpha = \pi - \beta##, and the proof is finished

Got it LCK, thnx!
 

1. What does the equation "Prove arccos(-x)+arccos(x) = pi" mean?

The equation is a mathematical statement that asks to prove that the sum of the inverse cosine of a negative number, and the inverse cosine of the same positive number, equals pi.

2. Why is it important to prove this equation?

Proving this equation can help in understanding the properties of inverse trigonometric functions and their relationship with each other. It also has applications in solving various mathematical problems.

3. What is the domain and range of the equation?

The domain of the equation is all real numbers except for -1 and 1, since the inverse cosine function is not defined for these values. The range of the equation is the set of all real numbers between 0 and pi, inclusive.

4. How can we prove this equation?

One way to prove this equation is by using the trigonometric identity: arccos(x) + arccos(y) = pi - arccos(xy) for |xy| <= 1. By substituting -x for y in this identity, we get the given equation.

5. Are there any other ways to prove this equation?

Yes, there are various other ways to prove this equation such as using the properties of inverse trigonometric functions, using geometric proofs, or using calculus. However, the trigonometric identity mentioned above is one of the simplest and most straightforward methods.

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