Prove f is constant - liouville's theorem (?)

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that a complex function f, expressed as f = u + iv where u(z) > v(z) for all z in the complex plane, is constant. The context is rooted in complex analysis, specifically relating to Liouville's theorem and properties of entire functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of f being entire and whether its components u and v are also entire. There is uncertainty about the application of Liouville's theorem to v, given its boundedness. Some participants suggest alternative approaches, such as using the function g(z) = 1/(f(z) - i), and question how this relates to the problem.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants raising questions about the validity of the original poster's reasoning and exploring different interpretations of the problem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the properties of holomorphic functions and the implications of the open mapping theorem.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted constraint regarding the use of Little Picard's theorem, as one participant indicates they cannot apply it. Additionally, the distinction between real analytic functions and entire functions is under discussion, which may affect the application of Liouville's theorem.

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Homework Statement


Let f=u+iv, where u(z)>v(z) for all z in the complex plane. Show that f is constant on C.


Homework Equations



none

The Attempt at a Solution



Here's my attempt (just a sketch):

Since f is entire, then its components u(z), v(z) are also entire <- is this necessarily true?

Since f is entire, the CR equations hold.

v(z) is bounded for all z, so since v is entire and bounded, by liouville's theorem v is constant. <- kinda shaky on this one, too.

Since CR equations hold, we know v_y = u_x = 0 and -v_x = u_y = 0.

So, f' = u_x - iu_y = 0, so f is constant.

Does this seem okay.. or am I way off base?
 
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I hate to be this guy.. but does this look okay? I still need help..
 
Don't know if you have Little Picard at your disposal, but that would be the route that I would take.

It is not true that ##u## and ##v## are entire. They are real analytic, though. Liouville doesn't apply.

Even if ##v## were entire, it isn't bounded.
 
No, this doesn't look okay at all. In general, neither the real nor imaginary parts of a holomorphic function are themselves holomorphic. In fact, it's not difficult to show that they cannot be holomorphic unless f is constant (basically, note that both u and v are real-valued, and apply the open mapping theorem).

As for this problem, the way I would go about it is by looking at the function g(z) = 1/(f(z) - i).
 
gopher p: no I can't use Little Picard, unfortunately. I looked it up, though, and it did seem pretty helpful! Thanks for the suggestion!

Citan Uzuki: yeah, that's what I thought.. my method definitely seemed a tad suspicious to me. I don't quite understand how 1/(f(z)-i) would help.. could you please elaborate a little more?

Thank you so much, so far!
 
Or, rather, how'd you get 1/(f(z)-i)?
 
jinsing said:
Or, rather, how'd you get 1/(f(z)-i)?

If u(z)>v(z) then f(z)=u+iv only has values in half of the complex plane. Sketch the region. i isn't in that region. So |f(z)-i| has a lower bound. Is that enough of a hint?
 
That's perfect. Thank you very much you guys!
 

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