Prove Linear Algebra Statement: x1E1+...+xnEn=0 then xi=0

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the linear algebra statement that if the linear combination of standard unit vectors E1, E2, ..., En in Rn equals zero, then all corresponding coefficients x1, x2, ..., xn must also equal zero. The proof by contradiction initially proposed was deemed flawed as it relied on incorrect assumptions. A more straightforward approach involves recognizing that if any coefficient is non-zero, the resulting vector cannot equal the zero vector, thereby confirming that all coefficients must be zero.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of linear combinations and vector spaces
  • Familiarity with standard unit vectors in Rn
  • Knowledge of proof techniques, particularly proof by contradiction
  • Basic concepts of linear independence in vector spaces
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  • Study the properties of linear independence in vector spaces
  • Learn about orthonormal bases and their significance in linear algebra
  • Explore proof techniques in mathematics, focusing on direct proofs versus proof by contradiction
  • Practice problems involving linear combinations of vectors in Rn
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Homework Statement


Let E1 = (1, 0, ... ,0), E2 = (0, 1, 0, ... ,0), ... , En = (0, ... ,0, 1)
be the standard unit vectors of Rn. Let x1 ... ,xn be numbers. Show that if
x1E1+...+xnEn=0 then xi=0 for all i.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Proof By contradiction
Assume to the contrary that x1E1+...+xnEn=0 then xi0 for some i. We also assume that x1...xi-1 and xi+1...xn are zero. Rewriting the equation we get
x1E1+.xpEp+...+xnEn=0 where xpEp is a nonzero scalar. xpEp=-x1E1-...-xpEp-1-xpEp+1-..-xnEn. But this leads to a contradiction since we assumed earlier that x1...xi-1 and xi+1...xn are zero. Thus x1E1+...+xnEn=0 xi=0 for all i.

Let me know where my proof begins to fall apart? And how do I go about it?
 
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bonfire09 said:
We also assume that x1...xi-1 and xi+1...xn are zero.

Why can you assume this??
 
Hint: making subscripts like you did in your post is very time-intensive. It is much easier for you to learn LaTeX. I will rewrite the first part of your post using LaTeX here, just push on "QUOTE" to see what I did.

Also see https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=3977517&postcount=3 for a guide.

Homework Statement


Let E_1 = (1, 0, ... ,0), E_2 = (0, 1, 0, ... ,0), ... , E_n = (0, ... ,0, 1).
be the standard unit vectors of R^n. Let x_1,...,x_n be numbers. Show that if
x_1E_1 + ... + x_nE_n=0
then x_i=0 for all i.
 
Oh thanks. Yeah my proof is bad I just realized I used the conclusion as my assumption.
I don't think I even need to use a proof by contradiction. Isn't just obvious that if one of the scalars is nonzero then the equation is not zero? Wouldn't that suffice as my proof.
 
bonfire09 said:
Oh thanks. Yeah my proof is bad I just realized I used the conclusion as my assumption.
I don't think I even need to use a proof by contradiction. Isn't just obvious that if one of the scalars is nonzero then the equation is not zero? Wouldn't that suffice as my proof.

Well, if your teacher is happy with "it is just obvious", then yes.

If not, try to calculate

x_1E_1+...+x_nE_n

By definition, we know that E_1=(1,0,...). So what is x_1E_1? What is x_2E_2? What happens if you add them?
 
Oh x1E1=(x1,...,0) x2E2=(0,x2,...,0) all the way to xnEn=(0,...,xn). So by adding them together you get (x1,x2,...,xn). And they only way to get the zero vector is when x1...xn is zero? Would that be a way to explain it?
 
bonfire09 said:
Oh x1E1=(x1,...,0) x2E2=(0,x2,...,0) all the way to xnEn=(0,...,xn). So by adding them together you get (x1,x2,...,xn). And they only way to get the zero vector is when x1...xn is zero? Would that be a way to explain it?

Yeah, that's what I had in mind.
 
alright thanks.
 
Think about what relations the basis vectors satisfy, if you notice the right thing, the proof is pretty swift.
 
  • #10
The problem with the above proof, it doesn't seem to use the fact that the basis is orthonormal. You could potentially "prove something false".
 
  • #11
algebrat said:
The problem with the above proof, it doesn't seem to use the fact that the basis is orthonormal. You could potentially "prove something false".

Why does orthonormal matter?? I really doubt we need it.
 
  • #12
micromass said:
Why does orthonormal matter?? I really doubt we need it.

Oops, yeah you're right aren't you. I guess because the slick proof I was thinking of, was take x.e_1=x_1=0. That works right?

So I was just guessing that it relied on some qualities of the basis vector, but maybe the real mistake would be to not refer to the fact that they are linearly independent. We do have to mention that right?

But perhaps the quality of orthogonal was not relavant, as you say.
 

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