Prove or disprove the following statement using sets frontier points

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if A is a subset of B and the frontier of B is a subset of A then A=B.

I am pretty sure that this is true as I drew I diagram and I think this helped.

A frontier point has a sequence in the set and a sequence in the compliment that both converge to the same limit. However I'm not really sure how to use this definition to help me

Thanks
 
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What if A is the frontier of B?
 
So you have \partial B \subseteq A\subseteq B. In particular, \partial B \subseteq B exactly says that B is closed. So B is a closed set, and A is a subset of B which includes every non-interior point of B.

The case R136a1 mentioned is, in some sense, the most extreme possible case of A\neq B (a counterexample to your conjecture, as long as B has nonempty interior).
 
As a side question, what the heck is a "frontier" of a set? This looks equivalent to the definition of boundary. Is this just another word for boundary? If so, why?

That is, why have a new word?
 
As both R136a1 and economicsnerd said, you can't prove it. Without some qualification, it is not true:
Counterexample: Let A= {0, 1}, B= [0, 1].
(I am assuming that "frontier" is the same as "boundary".)
 
A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.

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