Prove Subspaces U & V in Rn: U \cap V is Subspace, U \cup V Not Necessarily

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the intersection of two subspaces U and V in Rn is also a subspace, while the union of U and V may not necessarily be a subspace. Participants explore the reasoning behind these properties and seek clarification on formal proof techniques.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss informal reasoning regarding the intersection of subspaces and question how to formalize this reasoning into a proof. There is also an example provided to illustrate why the union of two subspaces may not be a subspace, prompting further exploration of linear combinations.

Discussion Status

Some participants express confidence in their informal reasoning, while others provide supportive feedback, indicating that the original poster's reasoning is sufficient for a formal proof. The discussion appears to be productive, with participants clarifying concepts and validating each other's understanding.

Contextual Notes

Participants are operating under the constraints of homework guidelines, which may limit the depth of exploration into formal proof techniques. There is an emphasis on understanding rather than providing complete solutions.

danago
Gold Member
Messages
1,118
Reaction score
4
Prove that if U and V are subspaces of Rn, then so is [tex]U \cap V[/tex]. Show by example that [tex]U \cup V[/tex] is not necessarily a subspace of Rn.

For the first part i can see that elements of [tex]U \cap V[/tex] are elements of both subspaces U and V. If i take any two element from [tex]U \cap V[/tex] and form some linear combination, then it must lie within U (since the elements are in U and U is a subspace) and it must also lie within V (since the elements are in V and V is a subspace), hence, [tex]U \cap V[/tex] is also a subspace.

Thats what i would have called informal reasoning. How can i actually prove that this is the case? Is my reasoning enough to stand as a solid proof?

For the second part i didnt have any troubles. I just defined:

[tex] \begin{array}{l}<br /> U = \{ k\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right)|k \in R\} \\ <br /> V = \{ k\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 0 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right)|k \in R\} \\ <br /> U \cup V = \{ a\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right),b\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 0 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right)|a,b \in R\} \\ <br /> \end{array}[/tex]

I then chose two elements from the union of U and V and formed a linear combination which was not an element of the union of U and V, hence U and V is not a subspace.

[tex] \begin{array}{l}<br /> \left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 0 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right),\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right) \in U \cup V \\ <br /> \left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 0 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right) + \left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right) = \left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 2 \\<br /> \end{array}} \right) \notin U \cup V \\ <br /> \end{array}[/tex]

I think that's the way to go about it, so its really just the first part i needed a bit of help with.

Thanks,
Dan.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Well you can write it in this form:

Suppose [tex]\vec{u_1},\vec{u_2} \in U \cap V[/tex].

Clearly that implies that [tex]\vec{u_1} \ \mbox{and} \ \vec{u_2} \in U[/tex] and this in turn implies that for any [tex]a,b \in \Re , a\vec{u_1} + b\vec{u_2} \in U[/tex] since U is a subspace of R^n. What can you say about u1,u2 in relation to V now? And how would you relate this to [tex]U \cap V[/tex]?
 
danago said:
Prove that if U and V are subspaces of Rn, then so is [tex]U \cap V[/tex]. Show by example that [tex]U \cup V[/tex] is not necessarily a subspace of Rn.

For the first part i can see that elements of [tex]U \cap V[/tex] are elements of both subspaces U and V. If i take any two element from [tex]U \cap V[/tex] and form some linear combination, then it must lie within U (since the elements are in U and U is a subspace) and it must also lie within V (since the elements are in V and V is a subspace), hence, [tex]U \cap V[/tex] is also a subspace.

Thats what i would have called informal reasoning. How can i actually prove that this is the case? Is my reasoning enough to stand as a solid proof?

Yes. It is a perfectly good formal proof. In fact I would much rather see a simple explanation like that than some string of symbols like u,v,a,b with decoration.
 
cheers for the replies guys. All pretty clear now :)
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
3K
Replies
9
Views
1K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
3K
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
7K