Ibix
Science Advisor
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I was getting at what you were getting at: that if you know how to transform the number of diagonals for a k-gon into that for a (k+1)-gon, and if that transform maps the proposed number of diagonals for a k-gon to the proposed number of diagonals for a (k+1)-gon then the inductive hypothesis is satisfied. All that remains to be done is to confirm that the proposed number of diagonals is correct for one case.Mark44 said:I disagree that what needs to be done is "rearrange" Mk + D to look like Mk+1. I might be misinterpreting what you mean by "rearrange" here, but my problem with nikotin's work is that it seems like all he is doing is replacing n by n + 1 in the formula, which is not how an induction proof is proved. If that's not what he's doing, then his work needs to be clearer.
OP: I sometimes find a counter-example helpful. I propose that the number of diagonals is much simpler: M'n=n. The inductive hypothesis would have it that if this is true for some n=k then M'k+1 (=k+1) should be equal to M'k+k-1 (=2k-1). Since this statement is not true, my idea is not consistent with the inductive hypothesis and so fails.
Try again: M''n=Mn+3. This does satisfy the inductive hypothesis (easy to verify since I've stolen the correct solution and broken it). So, if it were true for some n=k, then it would be true for all n. However, it is not true for a concrete value of n, say n=3, so fails.