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Homework Statement
f(x) positive and continuous in [a,[tex]\infty[/tex])
prove of disprove:
if [tex]\int_a^\infty f(x)dx[/tex] converge there is a 0<c<1 so that
[tex]\int_a^\infty f(x)^p dx[/tex] converge for every c[tex]\leq[/tex]p[tex]\leq[/tex]1
Homework Equations
every thing in calculus 1+2 no two vars ..
The Attempt at a Solution
Well I think that there is ..
But i have no clue on how to solve it...
Thank you.