Proving Group Isomorphism: Q& & Z[X]

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SUMMARY

There exists a group isomorphism between the group of strictly positive rational numbers (Q&,*) and the polynomial ring with integer coefficients (Z[X],+). The mapping involves sending each prime number p_n in Q& to the polynomial x^(n-1) in Z[X]. To establish this as a homomorphism, one must demonstrate that the mapping preserves the group operations, specifically that f(ab) = f(a) + f(b) for arbitrary elements a and b in Q&. This requires detailing how non-prime rational numbers are mapped and ensuring the function is both homomorphic and bijective.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of group theory, specifically isomorphisms and homomorphisms.
  • Familiarity with polynomial rings, particularly Z[X].
  • Knowledge of rational numbers and their properties.
  • Basic skills in mathematical proof techniques.
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  • Study the properties of group homomorphisms and isomorphisms in detail.
  • Learn about polynomial rings and their applications in abstract algebra.
  • Explore examples of mappings between different algebraic structures.
  • Investigate the role of bijections in proving isomorphisms.
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This discussion is beneficial for students and professionals in mathematics, particularly those focusing on abstract algebra, group theory, and polynomial functions.

TimNguyen
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Prove that there exists a group isomorphism between (Q&,*) and (Z[X],+) where Q& is the set of strictly positive rational numbers.

I was thinking of mapping a p_n, being the nth prime in Q& to x^(n-1). Would this work for this case?
 
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commonly you'd write \mathbb{Q}^+, though what is Z[x]? the polynomial ring in one variable with integer coefficients?
 
Yes, Z[z] is a polynomial ring with integer coefficients. Also, I have no idea how to do the fancy graphic stuff so I wouldn't be able to type out "the set of rational numbers".
 
read the sticky thread on latex. you can click on any 'fancy' picture to see what the generating text is.
 
Your idea is on the right lines, though you need to specify more than just p_n goes to x^n: where does 1/p_n go? what about 4, where is that sent?
 
Could I just send those to non-variable coefficients in Z[X]?
 
No, that can't happen. It is a homomorphism. You must send the reciprocal of a fraction to the inverse in Z[x], and you must send the product of rationals to their sum in Z[x]. I'm just saying that you need to show that the map you defined by specifying where p_n goes is indeed a homomorphism.
 
So, beside the mapping that I've already created, I need to make "additions" to the function in order to make it homomorphic?
 
If you were doing this and were a proven algebraist what you initially said is fine, since, with experience it's 'obvious' how to fill in the gaps, but you're trying to prove that you know what you're doing, so you need to show that that map, extended to any rational number, not just a prime, is a homomorphism. You don't have to make additions, as such, just prove that it is a homomorphism (and thence an isomorphism).
I mean, I know where that map with the proper details filled in sends 4/9, but do you? Rememver you're trying to both understand what's going on and demonstrate that understanding.
 
  • #10
So basically, all I need to do is for an arbitrary a,b in Q, then find a way to compute it so it will lead to:

f(ab) = f(a) + f(b)?
 
  • #11
But, surely you knew 'how to compute it' already...

you know you have to send, say 4=2^2 to x^2+x^2=2x^2, and 8=2^3 to x^2+x^2+x^2=3x^2 in order for it to be a homomorhism, hey, wonder what that is generally... now check it is indeed a homomorphism (and bijective)
 
  • #12
Thank you once again, I think I have a brief idea.
 

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