Proving Limit of a Sequence: Simplest Method

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the limit of a sequence, specifically the statement that if \( a_n \) approaches \( a \), then \( \frac{1}{a_n} \) approaches \( \frac{1}{a} \), under the condition that \( a \neq 0 \). Participants are exploring the validity and conditions necessary for this limit law.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning the correctness of the original limit statement and discussing the necessary hypotheses for it to hold true. There are attempts to clarify the notation and the conditions under which the theorem is valid.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with some participants expressing confusion about the statement of the theorem and its validity. There are indications that a clearer formulation of the theorem is being sought, and at least one participant claims to have found a neat proof.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted emphasis on the need for proper hypotheses in the limit statement, as well as a reference to the Algebraic Limit Theorem, which is central to the discussion. Some participants express frustration over the clarity of the original post.

glebovg
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Homework Statement

What is the fastest way to prove this.
1/an→1/a, where an is a sequence.

The attempt at a solution

I know how to prove this but I am looking for a simple and elegant proof.
 
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Of course, it isn't true the way you stated it. You need some hypotheses.

Elegant might mean noting that if a ≠ 0 then 1/x is continuous at a. Whether that is "simple" likely depends on the context.
 
an is a sequence. I am trying to prove this limit law for the sequence.
 
glebovg said:
an is a sequence. I am trying to prove this limit law for the sequence.

You haven't even stated the limit law correctly yet. And I thought you said you already know how to prove it. :confused:
 
I just abriviated limn→∞ an = a as an→a (as n→∞) if that is what you mean.
 
Just to be clear, you're saying that if an goes to a, you want to prove (quickly) that 1/an goes to 1/a? Correct?
 
glebovg said:
Homework Statement

What is the fastest way to prove this.
1/an→1/a, where an is a sequence.

The attempt at a solution

I know how to prove this but I am looking for a simple and elegant proof.

LCKurtz said:
You haven't even stated the limit law correctly yet. And I thought you said you already know how to prove it. :confused:

glebovg said:
I just abriviated limn→∞ an = a as an→a (as n→∞) if that is what you mean.

No, I'm not talking about notation. I'm talking about the fact that you haven't stated the theorem correctly even yet. You need something in the form

If [hypotheses here] then [conclusion here].

Your original statement, highlighted above, not only doesn't do that, it is false.
 
What do you mean it is false? How can a theorem be false? It has been proven. It is part of the Algebraic Limit Theorem.

1/an→1/a, where an is a sequence and a ≠ 0.
 
glebovg said:
1/an→1/a, where an is a sequence and a ≠ 0.

You're stating some kind of conclusion. What's the hypothesis?
 
Last edited:
  • #10
LCKurtz said:
No, I'm not talking about notation. I'm talking about the fact that you haven't stated the theorem correctly even yet. You need something in the form

If [hypotheses here] then [conclusion here].

Your original statement, highlighted above, not only doesn't do that, it is false.

glebovg said:
What do you mean it is false? How can a theorem be false? It has been proven. It is part of the Algebraic Limit Theorem.

1/an→1/a, where an is a sequence and a ≠ 0.

Did you even read my post?
 
  • #11
Let lim an = a, and lim bn = b. Then, lim an/bn = a/b.
We know lim (anbn) = ab. So ...
 
  • #12
Never mind I found the neatest way to prove it.
 

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