Proving Nonempty Fibers of a Map Partition the Domain

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the nonempty fibers of a map form a partition of the domain. The subject area involves concepts from set theory and topology, particularly focusing on the properties of functions and their pre-images.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the definition of a partition and question how the pre-image of a map relates to this concept. There is confusion regarding the nature of the fibers and their relationship to the domain.

Discussion Status

Some participants have raised questions about the properties of the fibers, such as whether they are non-overlapping and if they cover the entire domain. There is an ongoing exploration of these ideas without a clear consensus yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the implications of the definition of a partition and the characteristics of the map in question. There is uncertainty regarding the assumptions about the fibers and their intersections.

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Homework Statement



Prove that the nonempty fibers of a map form a partition of the domain.

The Attempt at a Solution



Ok so we have some map phi: S -->T

And we want to show that its pre-image phi-1(t) = {s in S | phi(s)=t} forms a partition of the domain.

Im really confused here. I assume that it is talking about that domian of phi which is S (i think) but i have no clue how this preimage forms partitions.
 
Last edited:
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any thoughts?
 
Doesn't phi^(-1)(t) for t in T constitute a set of non-overlapping sets that cover S? Look up partition.
 
Well a partition P of S is a subdivision of S into nonoverlapping subsets

How do you know phi^(-1)(t) for t in T constitute a set of non-overlapping sets that cover S
 
Prove it. Can any two fibers that correspond to different elements of T intersect nontrivially? Is there anything in S that doesn't lie in a fiber?
 

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