Proving Prime Divisibility with Induction

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    Induction Proof
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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a statement related to prime divisibility using mathematical induction. The original poster seeks guidance on applying induction to show that if a prime integer divides a product of integers, it must divide at least one of those integers.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the structure of an induction proof, with some suggesting starting with an assumption for r ≤ n and attempting to prove it for r = n+1. Others question how to apply results from n numbers to n+1 numbers and explore different cases based on divisibility.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants offering various perspectives on the induction process and the necessary base cases. Some have proposed working backwards and considering multiple cases of divisibility, while others express confusion about the assumptions and the implications of their reasoning.

Contextual Notes

There is uncertainty regarding the base case for the induction proof, and participants are grappling with the implications of assuming divisibility for different configurations of the integers involved. The original poster's familiarity with induction appears limited, which may influence the discussion dynamics.

Firepanda
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Use the method of induction to prove that if a ∈ Z is a prime
integer and if a/b1b2...br then a/bi for some 1 ≤ i ≤ r

I could prove this in other ways but how do you do this by induction?

I'm only use to induction of the form 'assume true for n show (n+1) also holds true'

Could someone start me of? Thanks
 
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Hi Firepanda! :smile:

Start "assume it's true for r ≤ n", and then try to prove it for r = n+1. :wink:
 
ok so..

a/b1b2...br then a/bi for some 1 ≤ i ≤ r

assume true for r ≤ n

a/b1b2...bn then a/bi for some 1 ≤ i ≤ n

if r = n+1

a/b1b2...bnbn+1 then a/bi for some 1 ≤ i ≤ n+1

but since we already had 1 ≤ i ≤ n then surely this is true?

Probably wrong
 
No, if a divides a product of n+1 numbers, how can a theorem about products of n numbers be applied? :confused:
 
Work backwards. There are three cases:
  • a|b1 and a|b2b3...br (game over), or
  • a|b1 (game over), or
  • a|b2b3...br.
In the last case, recurse.

I don't think tiny-tim's idea will work because there is no base case to make the stack of dominos fall.
 
tiny-tim said:
No, if a divides a product of n+1 numbers, how can a theorem about products of n numbers be applied? :confused:

if a|bc and gcd(a,b) = 1 since a is prime and b certainly isn't as its a product

then a|c, so since a|c then a|bn+1, and 1 ≤ i ≤ n+1 so this holds true?

^ sorry this is wrong gcd(a,b) isn't 1 its bi

im stumped
 
D H said:
There are three cases:
  • a|b1 and a|b2b3...br (game over), or
  • a|b1 (game over), or
  • a|b2b3...br.

Conceptually, there are four cases:
  1. a divides b1 and b2b3...br.
  2. a divides b1 but not b2b3...br.
  3. a divides b2b3...br but not b1
  4. a divides neither b1 nor b2b3...br.
You need to show that these are the only four cases, and that case (4) does not apply.
 
D H said:
I don't think tiny-tim's idea will work because there is no base case to make the stack of dominos fall.

I was thinking of saying a|bbn+1 where b = b1…bn :wink:
 
So what is the base case? You do not know that a|b1.

You have proved that if a|b2b3...br then a|b2b3...brbr+1. The OP needs to prove the converse (assuming a does not divide br+1; it's game over if a|br+1).
 
  • #10
No, if a|bbn+1, then … :wink:
 
  • #11
tiny-tim said:
No, if a|bbn+1, then … :wink:

go on... want to see how you've done it!
 
  • #12
Apply the induction … a divides the product of two numbers, so … ?
 
  • #13
tiny-tim said:
Apply the induction … a divides the product of two numbers, so … ?

a|b or a|bn+1?
 
  • #14
That's right. :smile:

Now carry on …​
 
  • #15
tiny-tim said:
That's right. :smile:

Now carry on …​

dont we just conclude that i is certainly contained between 1 and n+1 inclusive so the induction hypothesis is true?
 
  • #16
"i is certainly contained …"

That's meaningless!

What are you talking about? What is i?

(You're trying to find an i ≤ 1+1 such that a|bi, you haven't been given an i)
 
  • #17
tiny-tim said:
"i is certainly contained …"

That's meaningless!

What are you talking about? What is i?

(You're trying to find an i ≤ 1+1 such that a|bi, you haven't been given an i)

but we assumed it was true?

ok then but we've shown a must divide one of the terms so a can divide at least one of the i ≤ n+1
 

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