Bob19
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Hello
I have two non-empty sets A and B which is bounded above by R.
Then I'm tasked with proving that
sup(A \cup B) = max(sup A, sup B)
which supposedly means that sup(A \cup B) is the largest of the two numbers sup A and sup B.
Can this then be written as sup(A) < sup(A \cup B) and sup(B) < sup(A \cup B) ?
Can this then be proven by showing that sup(A) < sup(A \cup B) is true?
Or am I totally on the wrong path here??
/Bob
I have two non-empty sets A and B which is bounded above by R.
Then I'm tasked with proving that
sup(A \cup B) = max(sup A, sup B)
which supposedly means that sup(A \cup B) is the largest of the two numbers sup A and sup B.
Can this then be written as sup(A) < sup(A \cup B) and sup(B) < sup(A \cup B) ?
Can this then be proven by showing that sup(A) < sup(A \cup B) is true?
Or am I totally on the wrong path here??
/Bob
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