Proving that S=T with V and W Vector Spaces, Basis {v1...vn}, and T(vi)=S(vi)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equality of two linear maps, S and T, defined on vector spaces V and W, given that they agree on a basis of V. The original poster attempts to establish that if T(vi) = S(vi) for all basis vectors vi, then S must equal T.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of linearity and the properties of vector spaces and linear maps. There is a focus on the correct interpretation of the terms used, particularly regarding bases and linear maps.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided clarifications regarding the definitions of linear maps and vector spaces, emphasizing that linear maps do not have bases. There is an ongoing exploration of how to formally prove the equality of S and T by considering the representation of vectors in terms of the basis.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted confusion about the terminology used in the original post, particularly regarding the basis of linear maps versus vector spaces. Participants are also addressing the need to demonstrate the equality of the maps for all vectors in V, not just the basis vectors.

mrroboto
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Suppose V and W are vector spaces, and {v1...vn} is basis for V and T. S is an element of L(V, W). Suppose further that T(vi)=S(vi) for all i with 1<= i <=n. Show that S=T.

Here's what I think.

Because S is an element of L(V,W), S:V-->W means that S has a basis of {v1...vn}, and two vector spaces that form a bijective linear map (which S and T do because they have the same basis) are isomorphic. Moreover, because T(vi)=S(vi) then by their isomorphism, T and S must be equal.

This is the last question on my practice midterm and I'm unsure if this is how to proceed with the proof. Any comments, especially on how I could do this more "formally"?
 
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Homework Statement



Suppose V and W are vector spaces, and {v1...vn} is basis for V and T. S is an element of L(V, W). Suppose further that T(vi)=S(vi) for all i with 1<= i <=n. Show that S=T.

Homework Equations



none

The Attempt at a Solution



Here's what I think.

Because S is an element of L(V,W), S:V-->W means that S has a basis of {v1...vn}, and two vector spaces that form a bijective linear map (which S and T do because they have the same basis) are isomorphic. Moreover, because T(vi)=S(vi) then by their isomorphism, T and S must be equal.

This is the last question on my practice midterm and I'm unsure if this is how to proceed with the proof. Any comments, especially on how I could do this more "formally"?
 
Last edited:
Maps (in L(V,W)) don't have bases. Vector spaces have bases. Can you rephrase the question knowing that?
 
Last edited:
(I suppose you also meant T is in L(V,W) as well.)

What do you mean when you say "S has a basis"?! S is a linear map, not a vector space. V is what has the basis {v_1, ..., v_n}. Now to show that S=T, it will be enough to show that T(v)=S(v) for all v in V. But each v in V has a unique representation in terms of the basis vectors. So use this (and don't forget that T and S are linear).
 
mrroboto said:

Homework Statement



Suppose V and W are vector spaces, and {v1...vn} is basis for V and T. S is an element of L(V, W).
?? You mean, I think, that "{v1,..., vn} is a basis for V." and that "T and S are elements of L(V,W).

Suppose further that T(vi)=S(vi) for all i with 1<= i <=n. Show that S=T.



Homework Equations



none


The Attempt at a Solution



Here's what I think.

Because S is an element of L(V,W), S:V-->W means that S has a basis of {v1...vn}, and two vector spaces that form a bijective linear map (which S and T do because they have the same basis) are isomorphic. Moreover, because T(vi)=S(vi) then by their isomorphism, T and S must be equal.

This is the last question on my practice midterm and I'm unsure if this is how to proceed with the proof. Any comments, especially on how I could do this more "formally"?

As Dick pointed out, linear maps do not have a basis! You mean that {v1,...,vn} is a basis for V (which you had already said). In order to prove that T= S, you must prove that T(v)= S(v) for any vector v in V. v can be written as a linear combination of the basis vectors: v= a1v1+ ...+ a2v2. What happens if you apply both T and S to that?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
This was also posted in the "homework" area so I am merging the two threads.

mrroboto, do NOT double post!
 

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