Proving the Convexity of a Function Using the Mean Value Theorem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the convexity of a function using the Mean Value Theorem. The original poster presents a function \( f \) that is continuous on the interval \([a,b]\) and has a second derivative in \((a,b)\). The goal is to show that if \( f''(x) > 0 \) in \((a,b)\), then a line \( L(x) \) connecting the endpoints of the function lies above the function itself for every \( x \) in \((a,b)\).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to establish the relationship between \( L(x) \) and \( f(x) \) through derivatives and injectivity of \( f' \). Some participants question the logic regarding the maximum point and suggest that a contradiction might provide a clearer proof. Others express uncertainty about the implications of the second derivative and its role in determining maxima.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing hints and questioning the original poster's reasoning. There is no explicit consensus, but multiple interpretations and approaches are being explored, including the use of contradiction and the implications of the second derivative.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the proof may lack clarity, particularly towards the end, and there are concerns about the assumptions made regarding the behavior of the function and its derivatives.

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Homework Statement


f is a continues function in [a,b] and has a second derivative in (a,b). L(x) is a line that goes through (a,f(a)) and (b,f(b)).
Prove that if f''(x)>0 in (a,b) then L(x)>f(x) for every x in (a,b)


Homework Equations



MVT

The Attempt at a Solution



First of all,
[tex]L(x) = f(a) + \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a} (x-a)[/tex]
and so
[tex]L(x) - f(x) = f(a) - f(x) + \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a} (x-a)[/tex]
[tex]\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a} = f'(t)[/tex] where t is in (a,b)
and so
[tex]( L - f)' (x) = f'(t) - f'(x)[/tex]
Now, [tex]( L - f )' (x) = 0[/tex] only when [tex]f'(t) = f'(x)[/tex]
And since f''(x)>0 f'(x) is an injective function in (a,b) and so [tex]f'(t) = f'(x)[/tex] only when x=t. and since f''(x)>0 we get a maximum at x=t.
Now, (L-f)(a) = 0 and (L-f)(b) = 0. If for any other x_0 =/= t
(L-f)(x_0)=0 then that would mean that for some x in (a,x_0) and for some x in (x_0,b) (L-f)'(x) = 0, but this is impossible as (L-f)'(x) is injective and we alredy found one point (t) where (L-f)'(x) = 0.
Also, (L-f)(t) > (L-f)(a) = 0 because it's a maximum in (a,b). And so for all x in (a,b) L-f)(x) > 0 => L(x) > f(x).

I felt that that proof was pretty weak, especially towards the end. How can I make it better. And is there any easier way?
Thanks.
 
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Hint (hopefully): Let f : I --> R be differentiable twice on an open real interval I. f is a convex function on I iff f''(x) >= 0, for every x in I.
 
This is a proof that f is a convex function. As far as I know, the only way to do it is with a contradiction. Suppose there exists a t in (a,b) with [itex]L(t) \le f(t)[/itex]. That ought to make it feel more cleaner and mathy-like.

Your logic is backwards, you're presupposing (L-f)'(x)=0 for some x. It makes more sense that since (L-f)(a)=0 and (L-f)(b)=0 that there would exist a t in (a,b) such that (L-f)'(t)=0.

"and since f''(x)>0 we get a maximum at x=t." If g'(x)=0 and g''(x)<0 then g(x) is a local maximum. (L-f)'(t)=0 and f''(x)>0 doesn't tell you 'something gets maximized' (I'm not sure what you're saying gets maximized).

Anyhow, since (L-f)''(x)=-f(x)<0 (L-f)(t) is a local maximum.
 
Last edited:
radou said:
Hint (hopefully): Let f : I --> R be differentiable twice on an open real interval I. f is a convex function on I iff f''(x) >= 0, for every x in I.

Unfortunately that's not a hint. That's precisely the inference he's been asked to show.
 

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