Proving the Existence of Rational Differences in a Measurable Set

Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
2 replies · 2K views
modestoraton
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
If i have a measurable set with positive measure, how do I prove that there are 2 elements who's difference is in Q~{0} (aka a rational number that isn't 0.
 
on Phys.org
Hi modestoraton! :smile:

Let M is measurable such that there are no two elements who's differences are in [itex]\mathbb{Q}\setminus \{0\}[/itex]. Let [itex]M_n=M\cap[n,n+1][/itex].

Then perhaps you could evaluate the sum

[tex]\lambda\left(\bigcup_{q\in\mathbb{Q}\cap[-1,1]}{q+M_n}\right)[/tex]

and show that Mn has measure zero.
 
Last edited:
Thank you so much.