Proving the Limit of a Sequence Using Formal Definition

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the limit of a sequence defined as a_n = \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2} and whether it converges to L = 2 using the formal definition of limits. The original poster expresses uncertainty about the behavior of the sequence, particularly due to the oscillating term (-1)^n.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the validity of the proposed limit, with some suggesting that the original poster may have misread the problem. There is a focus on examining the sequence's behavior by calculating initial terms to identify patterns. The original poster contemplates the implications of the oscillation in the sequence.

Discussion Status

Some participants have pointed out that the proposed limit is likely incorrect, prompting the original poster to reconsider their approach. There is ongoing exploration of the formal definition of limits, with suggestions to think more concretely about the existence of n_0 that satisfies the limit condition.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the formal definition of limits and the implications of oscillating sequences, with an emphasis on ensuring clarity in the problem setup and definitions. The discussion reflects a lack of consensus on the limit's validity, with some participants questioning the original poster's interpretation.

Telemachus
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Hi there, I'm new around here. I got this problem, I must demonstrate next limit by using the limits formal definition.
[tex]a_n= \displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}, L=2[/tex]

Which means:

[tex]\displaystyle\lim_{n \to{+}\infty}{\displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}}=2[/tex] (its a sequence, [tex]n\in{\mathbb{N}}[/tex]).

And I don't know how to solve this. Here is the formal definition of limit given on class:

[tex]\displaystyle\lim_{n \to{+}\infty}{a_n}=L\Leftrightarrow{\forall\epsilon>0\exists{n_0=n_0(\epsilon) \textsf{ such that } n\geq{n_0}\Rightarrow{|a_n-L|<\epsilon}}}[/tex]I've tried to solve it, but couldn't find the way. I don't know how to solve [tex](-1)^n[/tex]. I actually thought at first sight that it didn't has a limit because of it, cause [tex](-1)^n[/tex] oscillates, but I actually don't know.

Thank you for reading. Bye bye.
 
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Well, the result you are trying to prove is false; that may be part of the difficulty. Did you read the question correctly?

When you have a sequence whose behavior you aren't sure of, it usually helps to write out the first few terms (three to ten, depending on how hard they are to compute) and see if you can see any patterns. In this case that should give you an idea what the limit is and what the sequence's behavior is like.
 
ystael said:
Well, the result you are trying to prove is false; that may be part of the difficulty. Did you read the question correctly?

When you have a sequence whose behavior you aren't sure of, it usually helps to write out the first few terms (three to ten, depending on how hard they are to compute) and see if you can see any patterns. In this case that should give you an idea what the limit is and what the sequence's behavior is like.

Thank you for answering ystael. I supposed it was false, I must now prove that it is false I think. I'll still working on it. Thank you again.
 
Well, hi there again. I get to this result, but I don't know if it's a complete demonstration, or if its well done.

[tex]\displaystyle\lim_{n \to{+}\infty}{\displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}}=2\Leftrightarrow{\forall\epsilon>0\exists{n_0=n_0(\epsilon) \textsf{ such that } n\geq{n_0}\Rightarrow{|\displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}-2|<\epsilon}}}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle\lim_{n \to{+}\infty}{\displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}}=2\Leftrightarrow{\forall\epsilon>0\exists{n_0=n_0(\epsilon) \textsf{ such that } n\geq{n_0}\Rightarrow{|\displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}-2|<\epsilon}}}\not{\exists}n_0(\epsilon)\textsf{ such that }n\geq{n_0}\Rightarrow{|\displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}-2|<\epsilon}\therefore\displaystyle\lim_{n \to{+}\infty}{\displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}}\neq{2}[/tex]

Is this ok as a demonstration that 2 is not a limit of [tex]a_n[/tex]?
 
Telemachus said:
Well, hi there again. I get to this result, but I don't know if it's a complete demonstration, or if its well done.

[tex]\displaystyle\lim_{n \to{+}\infty}{\displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}}=2\Leftrightarrow{\forall\epsilon>0\exists{n_0=n_0(\epsilon) \textsf{ such that } n\geq{n_0}\Rightarrow{|\displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}-2|<\epsilon}}}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle\lim_{n \to{+}\infty}{\displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}}=2\Leftrightarrow{\forall\epsilon>0\exists{n_0=n_0(\epsilon) \textsf{ such that } n\geq{n_0}\Rightarrow{|\displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}-2|<\epsilon}}}\not{\exists}n_0(\epsilon)\textsf{ such that }n\geq{n_0}\Rightarrow{|\displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}-2|<\epsilon}\therefore\displaystyle\lim_{n \to{+}\infty}{\displaystyle\frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}}\neq{2}[/tex]

Is this ok as a demonstration that 2 is not a limit of [tex]a_n[/tex]?

You didn't really do anything except say that there doesn't exist an n0 without proving it doesn't exist. Try thinking about this more concretely. Can you find an n0 such that for all n>n0, |an-2|>1? That would prove it, right?
 

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