Proving Uniqueness of t with Rolle's Theorem

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The problem involves a continuous and differentiable function f defined on the interval [0,1]. The original poster seeks to use Rolle’s Theorem to demonstrate that if the derivative f'(x) is not equal to 1 in the interval (0, 1), then there exists exactly one point t where f(t) = t.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the conditions under which Rolle's Theorem can be applied, particularly focusing on the need for equal function values at the endpoints of the interval. There is a consideration of defining a new function g(x) = f(x) - x to facilitate the application of the theorem.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing clarifications and exploring the implications of applying Rolle's Theorem to the function g. Some participants have identified potential misunderstandings regarding the application of the theorem, while others have pointed out the necessity of ensuring that g(x1) = g(x2) holds true.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted confusion regarding the interpretation of the problem statement and the conditions required for applying Rolle's Theorem effectively. Participants are also addressing the implications of the derivative not equaling 1 and how that relates to the uniqueness of the fixed point.

MatthewD
Messages
15
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Let the function:


f : I→ I be continuous on I and differentiable on the open set I
for I := [0,1]


Now I need to use Rolle’s Theorem to show that if f'(x) is not equal to 1 in (0, 1), then there is exactly one such point t



Homework Equations



I know that there's at least 1 point t ∈ [0, 1] such that f(t) = t.

The Attempt at a Solution



I've tried 3 different proofs for this, but none of them are giving me uniqueness of t. Please help!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Did you mean that there is exactly one t for which f(t) = t in your problem statement? As it stands, it's reading as if f'(t) does not equal 1 in (0,1), then there is exactly one point for which it does not equal 1, which makes no sense.

Assuming you meant the former statement. You're right in that there is at least one, which is due to the simplest of fixed point theorems. Now if there were two such points, say x_1 and x_2 consider g(x) = f(x) - x and apply Rolle's theorem to get a contradiction.
 
Suppose there are two points t1 and t2 such that f(t1)=t1 and f(t2)=t2. Apply Rolle's theorem to the function g(t)=f(t)-t on the interval [t1,t2].
 
So this is how I've been starting, as you said, and I think I'm confusing myself... can't I only apply Rolle's Theorem if f(x1) = f(x2)?

I have:
suppose f'(x) not= 1 on [0,1] and suppose there exists 2 pts, x1 and x2 in [0,1] such that
f(x1) = x1
f(x2) = x2
and let some function g be defined as g(x):=f(x)-x for x in [x1,x2]

To apply Rolle's Theorem, don't I need g(x1) = g(x2)?

I appreciate your help, I'm just still confused as to how I can actually apply Rolle's :(
 
But what is g(x1)? It is f(x1) - x1 = 0, since x1 is a fixed point of f. Similarly for g(x2). So Rolle's Theorem tells you something about g.
 
Which is clearly a contradiction! I realized my mistake: at the end I kept using Rolle's to say there exists a point c where f'(c)=0 instead of looking at the new function. It seems so easy now... I'm sorry! Thank you for your time, I really appreciate it!
 

Similar threads

Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
1K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K