CosmicC
how we can mathematically prove that in a purely inductive circuit current lags behind voltage by a phase angle of π/2?
The discussion revolves around the mathematical proof that in a purely inductive circuit, the current lags behind the voltage by a phase angle of π/2. Participants explore the underlying mathematics and concepts related to inductance and AC circuits.
While some participants seem to reach a level of understanding regarding the mathematical relationships, there is no explicit consensus on the proof itself, and questions remain about the clarity of the initial inquiry.
Participants express varying levels of familiarity with complex numbers and the mathematical framework necessary for the discussion, indicating that assumptions about prior knowledge may affect the clarity of the conversation.
This discussion may be useful for individuals interested in understanding the mathematical relationships in AC circuits, particularly those involving inductors and phase differences in current and voltage.
Welcome to the PF.CosmicC said:how we can mathematically prove that in a purely inductive circuit current lags behind voltage by a phase angle of π/2?
Yes Sir I am.berkeman said:Welcome to the PF.
1) Is this a question for your homework or schoolwork?
2) << EDIT -- I removed this point since it might not be accurate >>.
3) Are you familiar with the differential equation defining the voltage across an inductor v(t) as a function of the inductance and the derivative of the current i(t) through the inductor?
First you have to define voltage as some math function.CosmicC said:how we can mathematically prove that in a purely inductive circuit current lags behind voltage by a phase angle of π/2?
So you're aware e = L X di/dtCosmicC said:Yes Sir I am.
Yes Now i get it. And even both the curves has difference of ninety degrees. Thanks a lot.jim hardy said:First you have to define voltage as some math function.
Your question infers sine function but doesn't say that's what it is. Sine is a mathematical oddity in that its derivative and integral have its same shape .
so we use them almost interchangeably
Once you realize that it's trivial So you're aware e = L X di/dt
∫e dt = L X ∫di ;
i = 1/L X ∫e dt
if e = sin wt , i = 1/L X ∫sin(wt) = -1/ωL X cos(wt) if i didnt miss a sign someplace
and cosine is just sine shifted ninety degrees ..
Draw it out ?
Solved. Thanks a lot. :)BvU said:So we can mark this one as solved ? Or is there a remaining question ?