Quantum mechanics: one thousand neutrons in an infinite well

In summary, the conversation discusses a problem involving one thousand neutrons in an infinite square well with specific boundaries. The problem asks for the number of particles in a given interval and the number of particles with a specific energy at a later time. The conversation also mentions relevant equations and offers advice on how to approach the problem. The conversation concludes by discussing the importance of considering the symmetry of the situation and the interference of different states.
  • #1
Broseidon
4
0
I apologize in advance for not being familiar with LaTex.

1. Homework Statement

One thousand neutrons are in an infinite square well, with walls x=0 and x=L. The state of the particle at t=0 is :
ψ(x,0)=Ax(x-L)

How many particles are in the interval (0,L/2) at t=3?

How many particles have energy E5 at t=3s? (That is the <E> at t=3s)

Homework Equations



Wavefunction of the infinite square well: ψ(x)=Sqrt[2/L]Sin[n*Pi*x/L]

Time dependence of wavefunctions: ψ(x,t)=∑cnψn(x,t)

cn coefficients: cn=∫ψn(x)*f(x)dx

The Attempt at a Solution



This problem is quite similar to this one: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/neutrons-in-a-one-dimensional-box.242003/, except that now, one must calculate the quantities at a later time, forcing us to construct the full time-dependent solution (I suspect).

I begin by normalizing the initial wavefunction, where I get: A=Sqrt[30/L2].

Then, in principle, we can get ψ(x,t) by calculating those cn coefficients, and plug it in the general solution (Griffiths example 2.2 does this).

Well, this is all very nice and beautiful, but let's not forget what the question asks: calculating a probability at a later time. When putting this in Born's postulate to find the probability, the time dependence (a complex exponential) cancels out, so we don't even have to opportunity to 'plug in 3s! Not to mention, the infinite summation would also give me trouble when trying to perform the integral. (I hope I made sense...)

So, does anyone have any advice on how else to attack this problem?
Thank you!

[/B]
 
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  • #2
The problem can be simplified by consider the symmetry of the situation. Also, look out for red herrings.
 
  • #3
Broseidon said:
I begin by normalizing the initial wavefunction, where I get: A=Sqrt[30/L2].
Check that result also.
 
  • #4
Right, probability is not supposed to change with time for stationary states, and it doesn't matter if it's 3 seconds or 0 seconds.
So to calculate the probability, I can use the sin wavefunction, and I suppose the initial wavefunction must then be used in the second part, since the expectation value of energy formula involves finding the cn.
Am I missing anything else?
 
  • #5
Broseidon said:
Right, probability is not supposed to change with time for stationary states, and it doesn't matter if it's 3 seconds or 0 seconds.
The probability of being in a given state doesn't change, but different states can interfere with each other. You need to see if this affects the answer here.
 

1. What is a "quantum mechanics"?

Quantum mechanics is a branch of physics that deals with the behavior of particles on a very small scale, such as atoms and subatomic particles. It explains how these particles interact with each other and with energy, and has been incredibly successful in predicting and understanding the behavior of these systems.

2. What is an "infinite well" in quantum mechanics?

An infinite well is a hypothetical system used in quantum mechanics to model the behavior of particles confined to a specific region. It is defined as a potential energy function that is infinite within a certain region and zero outside of that region. This can help us understand how particles behave when they are confined to a limited space.

3. How many neutrons can be in an infinite well in quantum mechanics?

The number of neutrons that can be in an infinite well in quantum mechanics is infinite. This is because the well itself is infinitely large and can contain an unlimited number of particles. However, the behavior of the particles within the well will depend on factors such as their energy and the size of the well.

4. What does it mean to have "one thousand neutrons" in an infinite well in quantum mechanics?

This phrase refers to a specific scenario in which there are exactly one thousand neutrons confined within an infinite well. This could be used as a hypothetical example to study the behavior of particles in this situation and make predictions about their energy levels and interactions.

5. How does quantum mechanics explain the behavior of particles in an infinite well?

Quantum mechanics explains the behavior of particles in an infinite well through mathematical equations and principles, such as the Schrödinger equation and the principle of superposition. These principles allow us to understand how particles interact with each other and with the boundaries of the well, and make predictions about their energy levels and probabilities of being in certain locations within the well.

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