Question about liminf of the sum of two sequences

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The discussion centers on the properties of the limit inferior (liminf) of the sum of two real sequences, specifically the relationship between the liminf of individual sequences and their sum. It is established that if the equality holds, i.e., liminf_{n\to \infty} x_n + liminf_{n\to \infty} y_n = liminf_{n\to \infty}(x_n + y_n), it does not necessarily imply that either sequence converges. A counterexample provided is the sequences x_n = y_n = (-1)^n, which oscillate and do not converge.

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AxiomOfChoice
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I know that for any two real sequences x_n and y_n, we have

[tex] \liminf_{n\to \infty} x_n + \liminf_{n\to \infty} y_n \leq \liminf_{n\to \infty} (x_n + y_n).[/tex]

I also know that, if one of the sequences converges, the inequality becomes equality. My question is this: If I've managed to show that

[tex] \liminf_{n\to \infty} x_n + \liminf_{n\to \infty} y_n = \liminf_{n\to \infty}(x_n + y_n),[/tex]

can I conclude that one, or both, of the sequences converge? A simple yes/no would suffice, but (of course) I'd prefer a short proof or counterexample. Thanks!
 
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What if

[tex] x_n = y_n = (-1)^n[/tex]
 
statdad said:
What if

[tex] x_n = y_n = (-1)^n[/tex]

Lame! I was hoping both of the sequences had to converge! And what a simple counterexample to prove me wrong! Thanks, though :smile:
 

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