I am reading the proof of the Inverse Function Theorem in baby Rudin and I have a question about it. How does associating a function phi(x) (equation 48) with each point y tell us anything about if f(x) is one-to-one? I'll show the proof below. Also, if f'(a) = A, and f(x)=x(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); ^{2}, what would A^{-1}be?

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# Question about Proof of Inverse Function

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