This isn't really a problem. I am just re-reading some section "Classical Mechanics" by John Taylor. I think this belongs in the math section, since my question is mainly about the del operator.
There is just one fragment of one sentence that I want to make sure I am interpreting correctly. For a little bit of background context...we are dealing with an isolated system of two particles. The forces are translationally invariant, depending only on the relative position of the two particles, and conservative.
Next the author says that if we translate the system so that particle 2 is no longer located at the origin,
The next sentence, lifted directly from the book, is what I want to make sure that I understand
2) Attempt at a solution
Is this what the author means when he says that the del operator does not need to be changed when we translate the system.