Question on basic trig substitution with x = sin theta

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the use of trigonometric substitution in integrals, specifically the integral of 1 / (sqrt(1 - x^2)) dx. Participants clarify that substituting x = sin(theta) or x = cos(theta) is valid due to the identity cos²(theta) + sin²(theta) = 1. The substitution is merely a change of variables aimed at simplifying the integral, independent of the geometric interpretation on the unit circle. The key takeaway is that any invertible smooth function can be used for substitution, as long as it simplifies the integral.

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  • Understanding of basic calculus, specifically integration techniques.
  • Familiarity with trigonometric identities, particularly cos²(theta) + sin²(theta) = 1.
  • Knowledge of variable substitution in integrals.
  • Basic understanding of the unit circle and trigonometric functions.
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RoboNerd
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Say I have the integral of [ 1 / ( sqrt( 1 - x^2) ] * dx . Now I was told by many people in videos that I substitute x = sin theta, and this has me confused.

Wouldn't I need to substitute x = cos theta instead? as x = cos theta on the unit circle instead of sin theta?

Thanks in advance for your input! I am looking forward to hearing from you.
 
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It really does not matter. The substitution in itself has nothing to do with x being the x coordinate of the unit circle, it is just the name of a new integration variable. You can call it whatever you want, x, y, t, or ##\xi##, it is all the same.
 
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RoboNerd said:
Say I have the integral of [ 1 / ( sqrt( 1 - x^2) ] * dx . Now I was told by many people in videos that I substitute x = sin theta, and this has me confused.

Wouldn't I need to substitute x = cos theta instead? as x = cos theta on the unit circle instead of sin theta?

Thanks in advance for your input! I am looking forward to hearing from you.

Orodruin's reply is a very good one. The only thing you use is the identity cos^2x + sin^2x = 1, so you can substitute both cos(t) or sin(t) for x.
 
why is that even possible?

I was watching an MIT Opencourseware lecture and the professor explicitly said that the trig substitutions are tied with x=cos theta and y = sin theta on the unit circle.

The lecture is at:

Thanks for your input.
 
Math_QED said:
Orodruin's reply is a very good one. The only thing you use is the identity cos^2x + sin^2x = 1, so you can substitute both cos(t) or sin(t) for x.

I understand if I substituted x = 1 - sin^2 x because that rests on the pythagorean identity, but that is obviously not the case.
 
RoboNerd said:
why is that even possible?
It is just a substitution of variables, you can use any invertible smooth function for this. The only thing is finding a function so that the resulting integral is simpler. This has nothing to do with polar coordinates or parametrising the unit circle - it is just a variable substitution
 
Do you agree that

$$\int \frac{dx}{\sqrt{1-x^2}} = \int \frac{dy}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}$$
 
we just say in this case that x = y, so yes?
 
but why do they float this idea round? it has to be based off the theory that x = rcos theta
 
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RoboNerd said:
but why do they float this idea round? it has to be based off the theory that x = rcos theta
It has nothing to do with that. It is just a variable substitution.
 
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So how does this variable substitution work, then?
 
  • #12
The same way as any variable substitution. If you have an integral
$$
\int_a^b f(x) dx
$$
and introduce a one-to-one function ##x = g(t)##, then
$$
\int_a^b f(x) dx = \int_{g^{-1}(a)}^{g^{-1}(b)} f(g(t)) g'(t) dt.
$$
In your case, ##f(x) = 1/\sqrt{1-x^2}## and ##g(t) = \sin(t)##.
 
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thank you for your help!
 

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