Rayleigh criterion: finding the angular separation between 2 distant points

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The discussion focuses on calculating the angular separation between two distant points using the Rayleigh criterion. The initial calculation yielded an angle of 2.85 millidegrees, but it was pointed out that multiplying the angle by two was unnecessary. The correct interpretation involves recognizing that the angles to the minima are the same for both peaks. After realizing an error in the wavelength used, the recalculated angle is now 1.4 millidegrees. This adjustment highlights the importance of accurate parameters in such calculations.
Bolter
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Homework Statement
See below
Relevant Equations
dsin(theta) = 1.22 lambda
Screenshot 2020-03-24 at 09.45.09.png

I have tried this question and have gotten to an answer from the following steps

IMG_4333.jpg


So my angular separation is 2.85 millidegrees. Have I done this right with the formula I have made use of?

Any help would be great, thanks!
 
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All looks good until you get to the end and multiply the angle by two. There is no need to multiply by 2. Look at the diagram. Peak 1 is located at the first minimum of peak 2. That is a single multiple of the angle to the minimum. Yes, peak 2 is located at the first minimum of peak 1, but that is the same angle, not an additional angle.

P.S.: I like radians where for small angles sin(theta) ~= theta. Makes it easier to check the math, among other things.
 
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Cutter Ketch said:
All looks good until you get to the end and multiply the angle by two. There is no need to multiply by 2. Look at the diagram. Peak 1 is located at the first minimum of peak 2. That is a single multiple of the angle to the minimum. Yes, peak 2 is located at the first minimum of peak 1, but that is the same angle, not an additional angle.

P.S.: I like radians where for small angles sin(theta) ~= theta. Makes it easier to check the math, among other things.

Yes understood now

Plus I've just realized I've been using the wrong wavelength. It should have been 483 nm NOT 491 nm. Making that adjustment I get the angle to be 1.4 millidegrees now
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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