Recursive sequence problem: proofs by mathematical induction

DivGradCurl
Messages
364
Reaction score
0
Guys,

I'm trying to prove by induction that the sequence given by
a_{n+1}=3-\frac{1}{a_n} \qquad a_1=1 is increasing and a_n < 3 \qquad \forall n .

Is the following correct? Thank you. :smile:

Task #1.
n = 1 \Longrightarrow a_2=2>a_1 is true.
We assume n = k is true. Then,
3-\frac{1}{a_{k+1}} > 3-\frac{1}{a_k}
a_{k+2} > a_{k+1} is true for n=k+1.
This shows, by mathematical induction, that
a_{n+1} > a_{n} \qquad \forall n .

Task #2
We already know that
a_1 < 3 is true.
We assume n=k is true. Then,
a_k < 3
\frac{1}{a_k} > \frac{1}{3}
-\frac{1}{a_k} < -\frac{1}{3}
3-\frac{1}{a_k} < 3-\frac{1}{3}
a_{k+1} < \frac{8}{3} < 3
a_{k+1} < 3 is true for n = k+1. Thus,
a_{n} < 3 \qquad \forall n .
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Mathematics news on Phys.org
This is not written very well and some indices are wrong.
For the first step with ##n=1## we have ##3 > 2 = a_2 = 3- \frac{1}{a_1} > 1 = a_1 > 0##.
Let us next assume we have shown ##3 > a_n > a_{n-1} > 0##.

[Here we have to write the calculation 'backwards'.]
$$
3 > 3- \frac{1}{a_n} = a_{n+1} \stackrel{(1)}{>} 3 - \frac{1}{a_{n-1}} = a_n > 0
$$
where ##(1)## follows from: ##a_n > a_{n-1} \Longrightarrow \frac{1}{a_{n-1}} > \frac{1}{a_n} \Longrightarrow -\frac{1}{a_n} > -\frac{1}{a_{n-1}}##
 
In addition to fresh_42's comments, this line:
We assume n=k is true. Then,
a_k < 3
You don't "assume" that n = k is true -- you assume that the proposition ##a_n < 3## is true for n = k.
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Fermat's Last Theorem has long been one of the most famous mathematical problems, and is now one of the most famous theorems. It simply states that the equation $$ a^n+b^n=c^n $$ has no solutions with positive integers if ##n>2.## It was named after Pierre de Fermat (1607-1665). The problem itself stems from the book Arithmetica by Diophantus of Alexandria. It gained popularity because Fermat noted in his copy "Cubum autem in duos cubos, aut quadratoquadratum in duos quadratoquadratos, et...
Thread 'Imaginary Pythagorus'
I posted this in the Lame Math thread, but it's got me thinking. Is there any validity to this? Or is it really just a mathematical trick? Naively, I see that i2 + plus 12 does equal zero2. But does this have a meaning? I know one can treat the imaginary number line as just another axis like the reals, but does that mean this does represent a triangle in the complex plane with a hypotenuse of length zero? Ibix offered a rendering of the diagram using what I assume is matrix* notation...

Similar threads

Back
Top