Regarding an approximation of p as 1 over r

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on estimating the ground energy of a bound quark-antiquark (qqbar) system using the Hamiltonian H(r) = 2m - a/r + br + p^2/m, with parameters a = 0.5 and b = 0.18 GeV². The key question raised is the justification for approximating momentum (p) as 1/r, which is linked to the principles of quantum mechanics, particularly the uncertainty principle. This approximation is commonly used in quantum physics to simplify calculations related to bound states, such as why an electron cannot fall into a nucleus.

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Homework Statement



estimate the ground energy of a bound qqbar system , the total hamiltonian can be written as ,
H(r)=2m-a/r+br+p^2/m,where a=0.5, b=0.18Gev^2, m being the mass of quark or antiquark the book kinds of gives Hint " p may be approximated as 1 over r" ,natural unit is assumed ,(c=hbar=1)

Homework Equations


In particular , my question ," why we could always argue that p may be approximated as 1 over r" the uncertainty principle can be essentially delivered by an inequalitiy deltax*deltap>=1/2, where deltax is understood as x-<x>, it imposes , according to the widely accepted understanding of quantum physics, an upper limit to the degree of precision we may
reach in measurement . nevertheless , in "this "homework " , why we'd just approximate p as 1 over r , as we do all the time , like we argue that an electron may never fall into nucleus.
we seem to always approximate momentum as inverse r , and that is why?
sorry for the sloppy language ,and it's technically a homework problem , I wanted to post it in other sections ,though.

The Attempt at a Solution


 
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I am trying to solve this problem , but I just find it odd that we can always approximate the momentum as inverse r
 

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