Okay, suppose we know that the laws of physics are invariant with respect to a shift in position, and invariant wrt a shift in time (ie the transformations [itex]\mathbf{r}\ \rightarrow\ \mathbf{r}+\delta\mathbf{r}\ \mathrm{and}\ t\ \rightarrow\ t+\delta t[/itex] preserve the laws of physics). Then wouldn't that imply that the laws are *also* invariant wrt a change in inertial reference frame because a change in velocity amounts to continuously alternating between the transformation [itex]\mathbf{r}\ \rightarrow\ \mathbf{r}+\delta\mathbf{r}\ \mathrm{and}\ t\ \rightarrow\ t+\delta t[/itex]? Or is there something wrong with this logic?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Incidentally, I posted this in another site, and someone replied that the logic is fine. But I'm skeptical: I've always viewed the principle of relativity as an experimental fact which is not deducible from other, simpler symmetries.

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# Relativity: what's wrong with this logic?

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