1. Jan 31, 2015 #1

   blackwater

   

   Relaxation time is defined as the time taken for mechanical energy to decay to 1/e of its original value.
   
   Why do we take a specific ratio of 1/e? What is its significance?

    

   blackwater, Jan 31, 2015
2. 
   Phys.org - latest science and technology news stories on Phys.org

   • • Imaged 'jets' reveal cerium's post-shock inner strength
   • • Exciting silicon nanoparticles
   • • How many ways can you arrange 128 tennis balls? Researchers solve an apparently impossible problem
3. Jan 31, 2015 #2

   Einj

   

   Because it is the natural time scale of the problem. When you have a damped harmonic oscillator then its amplitude decreases with time like ##e^{-t/\tau}##. In this case ##\tau## is the time scale that determines the behavior of the system: if ##t\ll\tau## the system is still oscillating as an ordinary harmonic oscillator, while for ##t\gg\tau## it is already completely damped. This is why ##t=\tau## (the relaxation time) determines some sort of "benchmark" in the state of the system.

    

   Einj, Jan 31, 2015

• Log in with Facebook
• Log in with Twitter

Your name or email address:

Do you already have an account?

• No, create an account now.
• Yes, my password is:
• Forgot your password?

Stay logged in