Rewriting m(2r'a' + ra'') = 0 as a total derivative

[Jess1986]

Show that m(2r'a' +ra'')=0 can be rewritten as md/dt(r^2*a')=0

Has anyone got any tips on how i should go about this?? Thanks x

 

[Doc Al]

Use the product rule to take the derivative.

 

[TolsePhy]

it's trivial. you can jump to the solution directly.