Second derivative of friction force question

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the mathematical relationships involving the friction force per unit volume in the context of boundary layers. Participants explore the derivation and implications of the second derivative of velocity with respect to the boundary layer thickness, delta, and its relation to the friction force.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion regarding the relationship between the second derivative of velocity and the boundary layer thickness, delta.
  • Another participant corrects the terminology, emphasizing the distinction between friction force (F) and shear stress (τ), stating that the correct expression involves the partial derivative of shear stress with respect to y.
  • It is proposed that the second derivative of velocity with respect to y is proportional to the inverse square of delta, leading to the expression $$\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} \sim \frac{U_{\infty}}{\delta^2}$$.
  • A later reply confirms the understanding of the relationship, suggesting that the interpretation of the second derivative aligns with the proportionality to delta squared.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants appear to reach a mutual understanding regarding the relationship between the derivatives and the boundary layer thickness, but the initial confusion about terminology indicates that some clarification was necessary.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the distinction between force and stress, which may imply that further exploration of these concepts could be beneficial for a complete understanding.

fahraynk
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I'm studying boundary layers. I am confused by what I am reading in this book.

The book says the friction force (F) per unit volume = $$\frac{dF}{dy}=\mu\frac{d^2U}{dy^2}$$
They say $$\frac{dU}{dy}=\frac{U_\infty}{\delta}$$

This makes sense to me, delta is the thickness in the y direction, and the velocity is 0 at the airfoil (or whatever object) and it equals the freestream velocity after the boundary thickness delta. so du/dy being proportional to the free stream velocity divided by the thickness makes sense.
But then they say this : $$\frac{d^2U}{dy^2} =\mu\frac{U_\infty}{\delta^2}$$

Can someone explain why the second derivative is proportional to delta^2 ?
Is it that, delta represents the thickness y, and so the second derivative of 1/y = -1/y^2, and we just ignore the negative?
 

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Well for one, friction force per unit volume is not ##dF/dy## as you have written it. It is ##\partial \tau/\partial y##. The difference is important, because ##F## is a force, and ##\tau## is a stress. The units don't work out if you use ##F##.

So then the friction force per unit volume is
[tex]\dfrac{\partial \tau}{\partial y} = \mu\dfrac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2}.[/tex]
So, if you've already come to terms with the fact that
[tex]\dfrac{\partial u}{\partial y} \sim \dfrac{U_{\infty}}{\delta},[/tex]
Then the same logic leads to
[tex]\dfrac{\partial \tau}{\partial y} = \mu\dfrac{\partial}{\partial y}\left(\dfrac{\partial u}{\partial y}\right) \sim \mu\dfrac{\partial}{\partial y}\left(\dfrac{U_{\infty}}{\delta}\right) \sim \mu\dfrac{U_{\infty}}{\delta^2}.[/tex]
 
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Hi thank you for replying.

Ah okay, I think I figured it out.
I see how $$\frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = \frac{U\infty}{\delta}$$ because... it U=0 at the boundary and U_infty after a distance delta, so it should be proportional.

So I think :
$$\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial y^2} = \frac{\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}_\infty}{\delta} = \frac{U\infty}{\delta^2}$$ Or basically du/dt/delta = u_infty/delta^2
Is this the correct interpretation?
 
You got it.
 
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