Second Order ODE Using Laplace Transforms

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around solving a second-order ordinary differential equation (ODE) using Laplace transforms. The original poster presents a specific equation and their attempts to manipulate it into a desired form, highlighting confusion regarding the constants involved in the solution.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to solve the ODE using Laplace transforms and expresses uncertainty about the necessity of a specific constant in their solution. Some participants explore the equivalence of two forms of the solution and question the implications of altering constants in the context of inverse Laplace transforms.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants clarifying the role of constants in the solution. Some guidance has been offered regarding the flexibility of the constant used in the solution, but no consensus has been reached on the implications of this for the original problem.

Contextual Notes

The original poster notes that they have been provided with a specific answer to the problem, which they are trying to reconcile with their own findings. There is an emphasis on the use of a table of Laplace transforms in obtaining the final result.

jazznaz
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Little homework problem that I'm beating myself up over...

Solve:

[tex]xy'' - 2y' + xy = -2\cos x[/tex]

Using the method of Laplace transforms...

So I do some jiggling and get to:

[tex](1+s^{2})\frac{dF}{ds}+4sF(s) = \frac{2s}{s^{2} + 1}[/tex]

To which I find the following solution:

[tex]F(s) = \frac{C}{(1 + s^{2})^{2}} + \frac{s^{2}}{(1 + s^{2})^{2}}[/tex]

But I'm supposed to get to:

[tex]F(s) = \frac{C}{(1 + s^{2})^{2}} + \frac{s^{2}-1}{(1 + s^{2})^{2}}[/tex]

But the method I'm using to solve the first order ODE (variation of parameters/constants) won't seem to lead to the answer I need. It almost looks as though I should include an aribtrary constant where they're expecting me to get -1, but it seems that any constant value will be a solution to the first order DE obtained after applying the transform. So I don't really understand how they've deduced that it should be -1...

We've been given the answer to the problem,

[tex]y = \frac{C}{2}(\sin x - x\cos x) + x\cos x[/tex]

Where the result is obtained easily using a table of Laplace Transforms.
 
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jazznaz said:
[tex]F(s) = \frac{C}{(1 + s^{2})^{2}} + \frac{s^{2}}{(1 + s^{2})^{2}}[/tex]

But I'm supposed to get to:

[tex]F(s) = \frac{C}{(1 + s^{2})^{2}} + \frac{s^{2}-1}{(1 + s^{2})^{2}}[/tex]

Those are equivalent. To see this, start from the second expression.

[tex]F(s) = \frac{C}{(1 + s^{2})^{2}} + \frac{s^{2}-1}{(1 + s^{2})^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]F(s) = \frac{C+s^2-1}{(1 + s^{2})^{2}}[/tex]

[tex]F(s) = \frac{s^2+(C-1)}{(1 + s^{2})^{2}}[/tex]

Since C is an arbitrary constant, so is C-1.
 
So the justification is altering the constant to give a nice form for the inverse Laplace transform?

Thanks very much!
 
Yes, you can use either C or C-1. It doesn't matter.
 

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