Convergence of Sequence in C[0,1] Norms

In summary, the statement that if a sequence \{f_n\} is convergent in \left(C[0,1],||\cdot||_{\infty}\right) then it is also convergent in \left(C[0,1],||\cdot||_1\right) is true because the supremum norm is the greatest value in all p-norms. This means that if a sequence is convergent in the supremum norm, it will also be convergent in all other norms on the same space. This is because the supremum norm being finite implies that all other norms are also finite. Additionally, the fact that a sequence converges means that for any given epsilon, there exists a value N
  • #1
BSCowboy
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If a sequence [tex]\{f_n\}[/tex] is convergent in [tex]\left(C[0,1],||\cdot||_{\infty}\right)[/tex] then it is also convergent in [tex]\left(C[0,1],||\cdot||_1\right)[/tex].

I think I understand why this is true. (In my own words) The relationship between the supremum norm and the usual norm (really any p-norm) is that the supremum norm is the greatest value in all p-norms. So, for all sequences, if the sequence is convergent in the supremum norm it's convergent in all norms on the same space. Is this true?

Also, for a sequence to converge it means
[tex]\exists \, f \,\ni \,\forall \,\epsilon>0 \,\exists\, N\ni\, \forall\, x\in C[0,1][/tex]
[tex]||f_n-f||_{\infty}<\epsilon \quad \forall n>N[/tex]

This is a given, but how could I use that to prove the implied part? This is for my own edification.

Also, I can think of a counter example to show the other direction is not true.
Such as, [tex]f_n(t)=t^n \quad \text{then} \quad ||f_n||_1\rightarrow 0[/tex]
but, [tex]||f_n||_{\infty}\rightarrow 1[/tex]
 
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  • #2


The first statement is not true in general, only for measure spaces where the total measure is finite.

Counterexample on the real line:

fn(x)=1 -n<x<n, =0 |x|>n+1, and connect up to be continuous in between.
sup |fn(x)|=1, while all Lp norms become infinite.
 
  • #3


Right, thank you. That is a good point. I haven't yet thought about this proclamation in all spaces. My statement was about the behavior was concerning this normed metric space.
 
  • #4


Since (C[0,1],[tex]||\cdot||_{\infty}[/tex]) is complete and [tex]\{f_n\}[/tex] is convergent,
we know every sequence in (C[0,1],[tex]||\cdot||_{\infty}[/tex]) is Cauchy convergent and converges uniformly [tex]\Rightarrow \quad ||f_n-f||_{\infty}\rightarrow \, 0[/tex].
Because of this we also know:
[tex]||f_n-f||_1=\int_0^1|f_n(t)-f(t)|dt\leq\int_0^1||f_n-f||_{\infty}dt=||f_n-f||_{\infty}[/tex]
Therefore,
[tex]||f_n-f||_1\rightarrow \, 0[/tex]

Is my reasoning correct?
 
  • #5


Yes, You can use the same idea for all Lp norms.
 
  • #6


Thanks, I appreciate your input.
 

1. What is the definition of convergence of sequence in C[0,1] norms?

The convergence of sequence in C[0,1] norms refers to the idea that a sequence of functions in the interval [0,1] will approach a certain limit as the number of terms in the sequence increases. This limit is defined by the C[0,1] norm, which is a measure of the distance between two functions in the interval.

2. How is convergence of sequence in C[0,1] norms different from pointwise convergence?

Pointwise convergence refers to the behavior of a sequence of functions at individual points, while convergence of sequence in C[0,1] norms takes into account the entire interval [0,1]. In other words, pointwise convergence only considers the values of the functions at specific points, while C[0,1] norms take into account the behavior of the entire sequence over the entire interval.

3. What is the significance of studying convergence of sequence in C[0,1] norms?

The study of convergence of sequence in C[0,1] norms has significant applications in fields such as calculus, analysis, and functional analysis. It allows for a better understanding of the behavior of functions over a given interval and can be used to prove the convergence of various mathematical series and integrals.

4. Can a sequence of functions in C[0,1] converge to more than one limit?

No, a sequence of functions in C[0,1] can only have one limit. This is because the C[0,1] norm measures the distance between two functions, and as the number of terms in the sequence increases, the distance between the functions will approach a single value, resulting in only one limit.

5. Are there any conditions for a sequence of functions to converge in C[0,1] norms?

Yes, there are certain conditions that must be met for a sequence of functions to converge in C[0,1] norms. One of the most important conditions is that the sequence of functions must be uniformly bounded, meaning that there is a finite upper bound for the absolute value of each function in the sequence. Additionally, the functions must also be uniformly continuous, meaning that small changes in the input of the function result in small changes in the output.

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