Damidami
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I'm working on some topology in \mathbb{R}^n problem, and I run across this:
Given \{F_n\} a family of subsets of \mathbb{R}^n, then if x is a point in the clausure of the union of the family, then
x \in \overline{\cup F_n}
wich means that for every \delta > 0 one has
B(x,\delta) \cap (\cup F_n) \neq \emptyset
Now, if I say that because the intersection is a nonempty set, I have a point y \in \mathbb{R}^k such that
d(x,y) < \delta \wedge y \in (\cup F_n)
did I use the axiom of choice?
Because I think it this way, I choose an element y from an infinite (nonumerable) indexed family parametrized by \delta (for each value of \delta I have another intersection).
So If I don't want to use the AC I can't just say that I can choose an element from that nonempty intersection?
I'm a little confused :?
Thanks!
Given \{F_n\} a family of subsets of \mathbb{R}^n, then if x is a point in the clausure of the union of the family, then
x \in \overline{\cup F_n}
wich means that for every \delta > 0 one has
B(x,\delta) \cap (\cup F_n) \neq \emptyset
Now, if I say that because the intersection is a nonempty set, I have a point y \in \mathbb{R}^k such that
d(x,y) < \delta \wedge y \in (\cup F_n)
did I use the axiom of choice?
Because I think it this way, I choose an element y from an infinite (nonumerable) indexed family parametrized by \delta (for each value of \delta I have another intersection).
So If I don't want to use the AC I can't just say that I can choose an element from that nonempty intersection?
I'm a little confused :?
Thanks!