Sets - Relations - proof involving transitivity

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter eclayj
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Proof Relations Sets
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that if the domain and range of a relation R on a set A are disjoint, then R is transitive. Participants explore various approaches to the proof, including proof by contrapositive and the concept of vacuous truth.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests using proof by contrapositive, stating that if R is not transitive, then there exist elements x, y, z in A such that (x,y) ∈ R, (y,z) ∈ R, and (x,z) ∉ R.
  • Another participant argues that if xRy and yRz, then y must belong to both the domain and range of R, leading to a contradiction with the assumption that Dom(R) ∩ Range(R) = ø.
  • A different perspective is introduced, claiming that the statement is vacuously true since if the domain and range have no elements in common, it is impossible to have xRy and yRz, thus making R vacuously transitive.
  • Some participants emphasize the importance of recognizing vacuous truths in mathematical reasoning, noting that this can lead to seemingly absurd conclusions that are nonetheless valid in this context.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the approach to the proof, with some favoring proof by contrapositive and others advocating for the understanding of vacuous truth. No consensus is reached on a single method of proof.

Contextual Notes

There is an underlying assumption that the definitions of domain and range are understood, and the discussion does not resolve the implications of vacuous truth in broader contexts.

eclayj
Messages
20
Reaction score
0
I'm having trouble with the following:

Let R be a relation on A. Prove that if Dom(R) \bigcap Range(R) = ø, then R is transitive.

I took the negation of the "R is transitive" to try proof by contrapositive (as the professor suggested), and have the following:

\exists x,y,z \in A s.t. (x,y) \in R \wedge (y,z)\in R \wedge (x,z) \notin R.

Now I am stuck
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
You are done. y\in{}\mbox{Dom}(R)\cap\mbox{Range}(R)
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person
To elaborate...
- If xRy, then y\in\text{Range}(R).
- If yRz, then y\in\text{Dom}(R).
- Therefore, if xRyRz, then y\in\text{Dom}(R)\cap \text{Range}(R).

So you can argue as follows:
- \nexists y with y\in\text{Dom}(R)\cap \text{Range}(R).
- Therefore, \nexists x,y,z with y\in\text{Dom}(R)\cap \text{Range}(R).
- Therefore, \nexists x,y,z with xRyRz.
- Therefore, \nexists x,y,z with xRyRz and (x,z)\notin R.
- Therefore, R is transitive.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person
So if I understand it right, I have the following:

Let R be a relation on A. Prove that if Dom(R) ⋂ Range(R) = ø, then R is transitive.

Taking the negation of the "R is transitive" to try proof by contrapositive gives the following:

1.) ∃ x,y,z ∈ A s.t. (x,y) ∈ R ∧ (y,z)∈ R ∧ (x,z) ∉ R (statement one is from \neg(R is transitive))
2.) Then (x,y) ∈ R (from statement 1)
3.) Then y ∈ Range(R) (from definition range)
4.) Then (y,z) ∈ R (from statement 1)
5.) Then y ∈ Dom(R) (from definition domain)
6.) Then y ∈ Dom(R) ⋂ Range(R) (from 3 and 5)
7.) Therefore \neg( Dom(R) ⋂ Range(R) = ø ) (from 6)
 
eclayj said:
I'm having trouble with the following:

Let R be a relation on A. Prove that if Dom(R) \bigcap Range(R) = ø, then R is transitive.

I'd suggest an alternative approach. The statement itself is fairly non-sensensical, so why is it true? The answer is that R is vacuously transitive:

If dom(R) and range(R) have no elements in common, then you cannot have xRy and yRz. So, vacuously, for any such x, y, z anything is true, including xRz.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person
PeroK said:
... so why is it true? The answer is that R is vacuously transitive:

If dom(R) and range(R) have no elements in common, then you cannot have xRy and yRz. So, vacuously, for any such x, y, z anything is true, including xRz.

I think the solution I gave was a proof based on that exact idea.

I agree that there's no need to go by contradiction here.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person
Yes, and I think it's useful and important to recognise when something is vacuously true, as you may get apparent absurdities that are true in this case. E.g.

If Dom(R) intersect Ran(R) = ø, then xRy and yRz => anything you like (e.g. x is a tree-frog)!
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person

Similar threads

  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
152
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K