Show that metrics d_1,d_2 are equivalent

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating the equivalence of two metrics, d_1 and d_2, specifically focusing on the conditions under which open balls defined by these metrics relate to one another. The problem is situated within the context of metric spaces and topology.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the definitions of open sets and the implications of metric equivalence, with some attempting to establish contradictions based on the properties of open balls. Others express confusion regarding the concept of metric equivalence versus topological equivalence.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants sharing their interpretations and attempts at the problem. Some have provided insights into the definitions involved, while others are clarifying their understanding of the problem's requirements. There is acknowledgment of previous misunderstandings, and guidance has been offered regarding the nature of open sets in relation to the metrics.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the notation used in the problem may have contributed to misunderstandings, and there are references to specific conditions that need to be satisfied for the metrics to be considered equivalent.

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Homework Statement



Show that two metrics d_1,d_2 are equivalent iff for all epsilon>0, exists delta>0 such that
B_(d_1)(x,epsilon) \subset B_(d_2)(x,delta) and vice versa (Where B_(d_1)(x, epsilon) is the open ball on the metric d_1 around x with radius epsilon.

Homework Equations



pretty much what is in the first part

The Attempt at a Solution


This is what I tried:
Let B_(d_1)(x,epsilon)=I, which is an open interval;

Assume
a \in B_(d_1)(x,epsilon) and
a not \in B_(d_2)(x,deltamax)
I'm trying to show this leads to a contradiction of deltamax being the largest delta that gives B_(d_2)(x,delta)\subset I, but I'm not sure how.
 
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For the if part, all you have to show is an open set under d1 is also an open set under d2. Considering definition of open set in a metric space, i.e., each point of the set has an open ball contained in the set, this is almost obvious. The only if part is even more obvious following definition.
 
I have to show - insofar as I understand - that if they are equivalent metrics, then for any open ball for d1, there is an identical open ball for d2 ( because B_d1(x, epsilon) subset of B_d2(x,delta) and b_d2(x,delta) subset of B_d1(x,epsilon), which is more restrictive than the solution you suggested.
But thank you for your help.
 
I have to show - insofar as I understand - that if they are equivalent metrics, then for any open ball for d1, there is an identical open ball for d2 ( because B_d1(x, epsilon) subset of B_d2(x,delta) and b_d2(x,delta) subset of B_d1(x,epsilon), which is more restrictive than the solution you suggested.
But thank you for your help.
 
I see. Apparently I didn't know what equivalence of metric means. I was thinking of the equivalence between the two topologies.
 
The lecturer explained the problem after class - the notation had been unclear, and I'd misunderstood the problem. I've got it out now. But thanks - your suggestion was actually the right answer...
 

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