Show that the series ##\sum_{n=2}^\infty\dfrac {1}{n^2\ln (n)}##converges

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the series ##\sum_{n=2}^\infty\dfrac {1}{n^2\ln (n)}##, which falls under the subject area of series convergence in calculus. Participants are exploring various methods to determine whether this series converges or diverges.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of comparison tests, particularly referencing known convergent series like ##\sum_{n=1}^\infty \dfrac{1}{n^2}##. Some suggest using the squeeze theorem to establish bounds for the series in question. Others consider the ratio test and its implications, while some express uncertainty about the application of these methods.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various approaches being considered. Some participants have offered guidance on using comparison tests and the properties of p-series, while others are questioning the assumptions and methods being employed. There is a recognition that the problem requires careful consideration of the series' behavior rather than simply finding a formula.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the problem specifically asks about convergence rather than the sum of the series, which has led to some confusion in the approaches discussed. There are also mentions of potential mix-ups in applying the ratio test and the need for clarity in notation and definitions.

  • #31
$$=\lim_{n→∞}\left[ \dfrac{n}{(n+1)}⋅\dfrac{\ln n}{(\ln(n+1)}\right]$$
$$=\lim_{n→∞}\left[ \dfrac{n}{(n+1)}\right]⋅\lim_{n→∞}\left[ \dfrac{\ln n}{(\ln(n+1)}\right]$$
$$ =\lim_{n→∞}\left[ \dfrac{n}{(n+1)}\right]⋅\lim_{n→∞}\left[ \dfrac{n+1}{n}\right]$$
$$ =\lim_{n→∞}\left[ \dfrac{1}{(1+1/n)}\right]⋅\lim_{n→∞}\left[\dfrac{1+1/n}{1}\right]=\left[\dfrac{1}{1+0}⋅\dfrac{1+0}{1}\right]=1⋅1=1$$
Bingo:cool:
 
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  • #32
chwala said:
That is what I used...though not indicated in working ...
On the ##5##th line of post ##26##, it looks like you used the product rule of differentiation yet somehow ended up with the correct limit in the end. From the ##4##th line of post ##26##,
$$\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}[\dfrac{n}{(n+1)}]⋅[\dfrac{\ln n}{(\ln(n+1))}] =\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}[\dfrac{\frac{d}{dn}(n)}{\frac{d}{dn}(n+1)}]⋅[\dfrac{\ln n}{(\ln(n+1))}]=1\cdot \displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}[\dfrac{\ln n}{(\ln(n+1))}]=\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}[\dfrac{\frac{d}{dn}(\ln n)}{\frac{d}{dn}(\ln(n+1))}]$$
$$=\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}\frac{n+1}{n} =\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}\frac{\frac{d}{dn}(n+1)}{\frac{d}{dn}(n)} =\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}\frac{1}{1}=1$$
 
  • #33
chwala said:
... ##=\lim_{n→∞} [\dfrac{n}{(n+1)}]⋅[\dfrac{\ln n}{(\ln(n+1)}]##
##=\lim_{n→∞} [\dfrac{n}{(n+1)}]⋅\lim_{n→∞}[\dfrac{\ln n}{(\ln(n+1)}]##
##=\lim_{n→∞} [\dfrac{n}{(n+1)}]⋅\lim_{n→∞}[\dfrac{n+1}{n}]##
##=\lim_{n→∞} [\dfrac{1}{(1+1/n)}]⋅\lim_{n→∞}[\dfrac{1+1/n}{1}]=\dfrac{1}{1+0}⋅\dfrac{1+0}{1}=1⋅1=1##
Bingo:cool:
Quicker...
##\lim_{n→∞} [\dfrac{n}{(n+1)}]⋅[\dfrac{\ln n}{(\ln(n+1)}]##
##=\lim_{n→∞} [\dfrac{n}{n(1 +1/n)}]⋅\lim_{n→∞}[\dfrac{\ln n}{(\ln(n+1)}]##
##=1⋅\lim_{n→∞}[\dfrac{n+1}{n}]## (L'Hopital's Rule used here)
##=1⋅\lim_{n→∞}[1+1/n]=1⋅1=1##

You can save a bit of writing by getting some of the calculations out of the way rather than dragging them along.
 
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  • #34
docnet said:
On the ##5##th line of post ##26##, it looks like you used the product rule of differentiation yet somehow ended up with the correct limit in the end. From the ##4##th line of post ##26##,
$$\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}[\dfrac{n}{(n+1)}]⋅[\dfrac{\ln n}{(\ln(n+1))}] =\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}[\dfrac{\frac{d}{dn}(n)}{\frac{d}{dn}(n+1)}]⋅[\dfrac{\ln n}{(\ln(n+1))}]=1\cdot \displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}[\dfrac{\ln n}{(\ln(n+1))}]=\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}[\dfrac{\frac{d}{dn}(\ln n)}{\frac{d}{dn}(\ln(n+1))}]$$
$$=\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}\frac{n+1}{n} =\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}\frac{\frac{d}{dn}(n+1)}{\frac{d}{dn}(n)} =\displaystyle{\lim_{n \to \infty}}\frac{1}{1}=1$$
Yes, product rule it is...
 
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  • #35
chwala said:
... ##=\lim_{n→∞} [\dfrac{n}{(n+1)}]⋅[\dfrac{\ln n}{(\ln(n+1)}]##
etc
Bingo :cool:

Hey hey hey, I want some more attention for the typesetting :biggrin: !
  • use $$ instead of ## to get ##\displaystyle \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}## instead of ##\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \phantom{\Biggl | } ##
  • use \left [ and \right ] to get ##\left [\dfrac{n+1}{n}\right ]## instead of ##[\dfrac{n+1}{n}]##
##\ ##
 
  • #36
BvU said:
Hey hey hey, I want some more attention for the typesetting :biggrin: !
  • use $$ instead of ## to get ##\displaystyle \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}## instead of ##\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \phantom{\Biggl | } ##
  • use \left [ and \right ] to get ##\left [\dfrac{n+1}{n}\right ]## instead of ##[\dfrac{n+1}{n}]##
##\ ##
Thanks a lot Bvu, I've learned quite a lot from you in regards to Latex...I will for sure diarize all the syntax in my notebook...I will equally amend my posts accordingly...
 
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  • #37
chwala said:
Thanks a lot BvU, I've learned quite a lot from you in regards to Latex...I will for sure diarize all the syntax in my notebook...I will equally amend my posts accordingly...
By the way, if you want to use LaTeX in the same line as normal text, but you want the look produced by $$, use the "\displaystyle" command. That is what @BvU used to get ##\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} ## to appear in a line of normal text.

You can also save some typing by using "\to" rather than "\rightarrow" for the arrow.
 
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  • #38
SammyS said:
By the way, if you want to use LaTeX in the same line as normal text, but you want the look produced by $$, use the "\displaystyle" command. That is what @BvU used to get ##\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} ## to appear in a line of normal text.

You can also save some typing by using "\to" rather than "\rightarrow" for the arrow.
Am now a disciple of $$.:wink:
 
  • #39
chwala said:
Am now a disciple of $$.:wink:
I avoid $$ whenever possible.
 
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  • #40
SammyS said:
I avoid $$ whenever possible.
Noted Sammy ...cheers
 
  • #41
SammyS said:
I avoid $$ whenever possible.
Me, too. I'll use it if I have an equation I want to set off, but otherwise I will use ## so as to not incorporate a bunch of extraneous blank lines.
@SammyS, I didn't know that about displaystyle...
 
  • #42
Though It may be too late to join I would say
\sum_{n=1}\frac{1}{(n+1)^2}<\int_1^\infty \frac{1}{x^2}dx=1<\sum_{n=1}\frac{1}{n^2}
and
\sum_{n=1}\frac{1}{n^2}=1+\sum_{n=1}\frac{1}{(n+1)^2}
So
1<\sum_{n=1}\frac{1}{n^2}<2
, the series converges.
 
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  • #43
Bvu/Sammy can you kindly post me an example of a problem posted with;
"\displaystyle" command (two lines will suffice)...i do not seem to get how the command should be typed...
Alternatively, I will just peruse your posts and see how you are using that.. I am a fast learner. Cheers mate:cool:
 
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  • #44
SammyS said:
By the way, if you want to use LaTeX in the same line as normal text, but you want the look produced by $$, use the "\displaystyle" command. That is what @BvU used to get ##\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} ## to appear in a line of normal text.

You can also save some typing by using "\to" rather than "\rightarrow" for the arrow.
Right-click on this \lim thing !
 
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  • #45
anuttarasammyak said:
Though It may be too late to join I would say
...
Never too late ! And a nice warming-up for part (c) in this ##\TeX##/series convergence thread :smile: !
 
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  • #46
I think we wwant @chwala to catch up first ...
It seems to me part (c) promises convergence ...
 
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  • #47
BvU said:
I think we wwant @chwala to catch up first ...
It seems to me part (c) promises convergence ...
Yes definitely, I'll be posting my findings soon...
 
  • #48
Similar to #42
\sum_{n=1}\frac{1}{(n+1)^p}<\int_1^\infty \frac{1}{x^p}dx=[\frac{x^{1-p}}{1-p}]_1^\infty<\sum_{n=1}\frac{1}{n^p}
and
\sum_{n=1}\frac{1}{n^p}=1+\sum_{n=1}\frac{1}{(n+1)^p}
for p>0. So the series converges for p>1, e.g. p=1.01.
 
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  • #49
Ok, for part ##c##,
The integral test can be used because;
1. series is continous.
2. series is easily integrable by use of improper integrals.
We want to check the convergence or divergence of,
$$\sum_{n=2}^\infty\left[\dfrac{1}{n\ln(n)}\right]$$ Using the integral test it follows that,
$$\int_2^\infty\left[\dfrac{1}{n\ln(n)}\right] dn=\lim_{m→∞}\int_2^m\left[\dfrac{1}{x\ln(x)}\right] dx$$
Let##u= \ln(x)## then ##du##=##\dfrac{1}{x}dx##, therefore
$$\lim_{m→∞}\int_2^m\left[\dfrac{1}{x\ln(x)}\right] dx=\lim_{m→∞}\int_2^m\left[\dfrac{du}{u}\right]=\lim_{m→∞}\left[\ln(\ln(m)-\ln(\ln2)\right]=∞$$
The integral diverges, therefore the series diverges.
 
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  • #50
chwala said:
Using the integral test it follows that,
∫2∞[1nln⁡(n)]dn=limm→∞∫2m[1xln⁡(x)]dx
In more detail
\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{(n+1)\ln (n+1)}<\int_2^\infty\frac{1}{x \ln x}dx=[\ln(\ln x)]_2^\infty=+\infty< \sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n\ln n}
and obviously
\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{n\ln n}= \sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{(n+1)\ln (n+1)}+\frac{1}{2 \ln 2}
So the series diverges.
 
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  • #51
Hehe, so my playing advocate for the devil in #46 hasn't confused anyone but myself :frown: .
Well done @chwala and @anuttarasammyak !

##\ ##
 
  • #52
BvU said:
Hehe, so my playing advocate for the devil in #46 hasn't confused anyone but myself :frown: .
Well done @chwala and @anuttarasammyak !

##\ ##
Nice Bvu...Great Math community that we have here...I also noted that we can integrate ##\dfrac {1}{x\ln(x)}## using integration by parts...and realize the same result.
 
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