Show the expectation value is non negative

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SUMMARY

The expectation value of kinetic energy, represented as \(\left\langle E_{kin} \right\rangle\), is confirmed to be non-negative through the integral form \(\left\langle E_{kin}\right\rangle = \dfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2m} \displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\left|\dfrac{\partial\Psi}{\partial x}\right|^{2} dx\). This expression utilizes the properties of the wave function \(\Psi\) and its derivatives. The constants \(\hbar\) and \(m\) are positive, ensuring that the integral, which represents the kinetic energy, cannot yield a negative value.

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  • Understanding of quantum mechanics and Dirac notation
  • Familiarity with the concept of kinetic energy in quantum systems
  • Knowledge of integrals and their properties in the context of wave functions
  • Basic grasp of complex functions and their derivatives
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  • Explore the role of the wave function \(\Psi\) in quantum mechanics
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bobred
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Homework Statement


The kinetic energy is given by \left\langle E_{kin} \right\rangle = \frac{\left\langle \widehat{p}^2 \right\rangle}{2m}

In Dirac notation we have

\left\langle E_{kin} \right\rangle = \frac{1}{2m} \left\langle \widehat{p}\Psi | \widehat{p}\Psi \right\rangle

Homework Equations


We are asked to give this in integral form and involving \left| \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x} \right|

\left\langle E_{kin}\right\rangle =\dfrac{1}{2m} \displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\widehat{\textrm{p}}_{x}^{*}\Psi^{*}(x,t)\widehat{ \textrm{p}}_{x} \Psi(x,t) dx

Which then becomes

\dfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2m} \displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\left|\dfrac{\partial\Psi}{\partial x}\right|^{2} dx

The Attempt at a Solution


This is not a problem but we are also asked to confirm explicitly that this cannot be negative in value

\dfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2m} \displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} \left| \Psi \right|^{2} dx

Is this valid? As the constants on the left are positive and the square of the modulus of a complex function is non negative.

Thanks
 
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The square of a first derivative of a function is not the second derivative of that function squared.


Isn't the answer obtained directly from:
bobred said:
\dfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2m} \displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\left|\dfrac{\partial\Psi}{\partial x}\right|^{2} dx
 
Yes, thanks.
 

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