Show the following is a metric

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the function defined by the integral \( d(f,g) = \int_{0}^{1}\left | f(x) - g(x) \right | dx \) qualifies as a distance function, where \( f \) and \( g \) are continuous functions mapping from the interval \([0,1]\) to the real numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants express difficulty in demonstrating that \( d(f,g) = 0 \) implies \( f = g \). There is mention of exploring the contrapositive approach, but challenges are noted. One participant suggests the importance of continuity in proving the integral's properties.

Discussion Status

Some participants are actively engaging with the problem, attempting to clarify the necessary conditions for the integral to be greater than zero. There is a recognition of the need to prove specific properties of the integral, but no consensus has been reached on the approach or solution.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of proving properties of a distance function, specifically focusing on the implications of continuity and the behavior of the integral over the specified interval.

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Homework Statement



Show that ##d(f,g) = \int_{0}^{1}\left | f(x) - g(x) \right | dx## is a distance function. Where ##f : [0,1] \rightarrow R## and ##f## is continuous.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I am stuck on the second property where you have to show d(f,g) = 0 iff f = g. THe left direction is trivial. However d(f,g) = 0 implying f=g is giving me trouble. I have tried contrapositive, but it doesn't seem to be getting me anywhere.
 
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DotKite said:

Homework Statement



Show that ##d(f,g) = \int_{0}^{1}\left | f(x) - g(x) \right | dx## is a distance function. Where ##f : [0,1] \rightarrow R## and ##f## is continuous.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


I am stuck on the second property where you have to show d(f,g) = 0 iff f = g. THe left direction is trivial. However d(f,g) = 0 implying f=g is giving me trouble. I have tried contrapositive, but it doesn't seem to be getting me anywhere.

The fact you need is that if F(x)>=0 on [0,1], F(a)>0 for some ##a## in [0,1] and F(x) is continuous (very important) then ##\int_{0}^{1}\left | F(x) \right | dx \gt 0##. Can you figure out how to prove that?
 
Last edited:
Dick said:
The fact you need is that if F(x)>=0 on [0,1], F(a)>0 for some ##a## in [0,1] and F(x) is continuous (very important) then ##\int_{0}^{1}\left | F(x) \right | dx \ge 0##. Can you figure out how to prove that?

wouldn't I need to show that ##\int_{0}^{1}\left | F(x) \right | dx > 0##
to get the contrapositive?
 
Oh I see! ok. NVM. Gonna try to prove it
 
DotKite said:
wouldn't I need to show that ##\int_{0}^{1}\left | F(x) \right | dx > 0##
to get the contrapositive?

Yes, of course. Typo. Sorry. I corrected it.
 
Last edited:

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