Showing Greens First Theorem Integral is 0

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating that a specific integral involving vector fields and Green's first theorem equals zero. The subject area includes vector calculus and potential theory, particularly focusing on harmonic functions and their properties.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply Green's first theorem to relate the integral of the divergence of a gradient to surface integrals. They express uncertainty about how to show that the integral equals zero, given that one function is not specified as harmonic.

Discussion Status

Some participants provide clarifications regarding the harmonic nature of the functions involved and suggest manipulating the terms in the integral. There is an acknowledgment that certain terms can be eliminated based on boundary conditions, but no consensus on a complete solution has been reached.

Contextual Notes

The problem does not specify that the function psi is harmonic, leading to questions about the assumptions that can be made regarding the functions involved. Additionally, the boundary conditions play a significant role in the discussion.

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[SOLVED] Greens Functions

Homework Statement


show:
[tex]\int\int\int_{D}\vec{F}\cdot\vec{G}dV = 0[/tex]
where:
[tex]\vec{F}=\nabla\phi[/tex]
[tex]\vec{G}=\nabla\psi[/tex]
[tex]\nabla\cdot\vec{F}=0[/tex]
[tex]\psi|_{\partial D}=0[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution


This looks like a problem for Greens first theorem:

[tex]\int\int\int_{D}\phi\nabla^{2}\psi dV = \int\int_{\partial D}\phi\nabla\psi dS - \int\int\int_{D}\nabla\psi\cdot\nabla\phi dV[/tex]

The very right term is clearly the integral that I'm looking for. So, i will set it to look like the requested answer. Also, I know that
[tex]\psi|_{\partial D}=0[/tex]
meaning that I can also throw out the second term because that term wants me to integrate the gradient of psi over the surface, while I know that psi is 0 over the surface. So, I am left with this:

[tex]\int\int\int_{D}\phi\nabla^{2}\psi dV = - \int\int\int_{D}\vec{F}\cdot\vec{G} dV[/tex]

So, this means that the term on the left mus equal zero. Does anyone know how I can show this? Psi is not zero through the domain, and the problem doesn't specify that it is a harmonic potential (although I suppose it could be). Could someone please help me with this step? Any help at all is greatly appreciated.
 
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Uh, phi is given to be harmonic, not psi. Since the divergence of it's gradient is zero. Why don't you move the laplacian operator over to phi?
 
Last edited:
I.e. just switch the roles of psi and phi?
 
Thanks for the help! This will also eliminate the middle term anyways too, since psi will be zero there on the boundary, right?
 
EngageEngage said:
Thanks for the help! This will also eliminate the middle term anyways too, since psi will be zero there on the boundary, right?

Right.
 
thanks a lot for the help Dick
 

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