Showing that Equivalence Relations are the Same.

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SUMMARY

This discussion centers on proving the equivalence of two relations defined on a group G and its subgroup H. The relations are defined as a~b if ab-1εH and a~~b if a-1bεH. The initial assumption was that these relations are equivalent, but further analysis suggests they are not, particularly in the context of nonnormal subgroups. The user seeks assistance in finding a counterexample to demonstrate this distinction.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of group theory, specifically the concepts of groups and subgroups.
  • Familiarity with equivalence relations in mathematical contexts.
  • Knowledge of cosets and their properties within group theory.
  • Experience with normal and nonnormal subgroups in group theory.
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the properties of normal subgroups and their implications on equivalence relations.
  • Study counterexamples in group theory to understand when equivalence relations fail.
  • Explore the concept of cosets in depth, particularly how they relate to subgroup structures.
  • Investigate the definitions and properties of equivalence relations in abstract algebra.
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for students and enthusiasts of abstract algebra, particularly those studying group theory, as well as educators looking for examples of equivalence relations and subgroup properties.

jmjlt88
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Let G be a group and let H be a subgroup of G.

Define ~ as a~b iff ab-1εH.

Define ~~ as a~~b iff a-1bεH.

The book I am using wanted us to prove that each was an equivalence relation, which was easy. Then, it asked if these equivalence relations were the same, if so, prove it. My initial reaction was yes. I did not prove it, but I did write down a quick idea surronded by question marks and "ask PhysicsForum!." Now that I know a bit more about cosets, I say no.

For my idea, I wrote something like this. [Remember, I am writing to me.] :redface:

"Show that a~b implies a~~b and vice versa. If a~b, then ab-1εH. Show that this implies that a and b-1 are in H... then a-1 and b are in H. Hence, a-1bεH and a~~b... Similar going the other way... But, not sure if this even works ? Ask PhysicsForum before trying to write this out."

Well, any help?? :)
 
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Try to find a counterexample.

I claim that it is true for normal subgroups, can you prove that?

So to find a counterexample, pick your favorite nonnormal subgroup and do something with it.
 
Thanks! :)
 

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