Showing that if lim a^2 = 0 implies lim a = 0

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a sequence \( a_n \) where the convergence of the series \( \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n^2 \) is given, and the goal is to show that \( \lim_{n\to\infty} a_n = 0 \). The subject area pertains to sequences and limits in mathematical analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of the convergence of \( a_n^2 \) and question the justification for claiming that \( \lim_{n\to\infty} a_n^2 = (\lim_{n\to\infty} a_n)^2 \). There is also discussion on the necessity of knowing whether \( a_n \) converges before applying limit properties. Epsilon-delta arguments are proposed as a method to demonstrate the limit, with some participants questioning the validity of these approaches.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing various perspectives on the reasoning involved. Some have pointed out potential pitfalls in the original reasoning, while others have suggested using epsilon-delta proofs. There is acknowledgment of the need for careful reasoning regarding the limits and convergence of the sequence.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the implications of the convergence of \( \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n^2 \) and the assumptions required to apply limit properties. There is also a mention of the continuity of the square root function in relation to the limits being discussed.

Mr Davis 97
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Homework Statement


Suppose that ##a_n## is a sequence such that ##\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n^2## converges. Show that ##\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n = 0##.

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The Attempt at a Solution


My idea was this. Since ##a_n^2## converges, we have that ##\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n^2 = 0##. I want to claim that ##\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n^2 = (\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n)^2 = 0##, but is this justified? Don't I have to know that ##a_n## does in fact converge before I can use the algebra of limits?
 
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You cannot reason that way: For ##a_n=(-1)^n## we have ##\lim a_n^2=1## whereas ##\lim a_n## does not exist. So at least more care is needed.
 
fresh_42 said:
You cannot reason that way: For ##a_n=(-1)^n## we have ##\lim a_n^2=1## whereas ##\lim a_n## does not exist. So at least more care is needed.
I think I can show it using an epsilon-delta proof:

Let ##\epsilon > 0##. There exists ##N## such that ##n\ge N## implies that ##|a_n^2| < \epsilon^2##. So ##|a_n| < \epsilon##, by taking the square root of both sides. Is this correct? Is this the best way to show this?
 
Mr Davis 97 said:
I think I can show it using an epsilon-delta proof:

Let ##\epsilon > 0##. There exists ##N## such that ##n\ge N## implies that ##|a_n^2| < \epsilon^2##. So ##|a_n| < \epsilon##, by taking the square root of both sides. Is this correct? Is this the best way to show this?
Yes.

You implicitly used ##\sum |b_n| < \infty \Longrightarrow \lim |b_n|=0\,##, so I'm not sure if you have this or still need to show it.
 
fresh_42 said:
You cannot reason that way: For ##a_n=(-1)^n## we have ##\lim a_n^2=1## whereas ##\lim a_n## does not exist. So at least more care is needed.

Nice profile picture. What/who exactly are these people? :)
 
Easy solution: ##a_n^2 \to 0 \implies |a_n| \to 0 \implies a_n \to 0##

where I used that square root is continuous.
 
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