Simple Integral Help: Understanding the Missing (1/2) in ∫tan^(-1)x dx

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integral ∫tan^(-1)x dx, specifically addressing a discrepancy in the final result involving a missing factor of (1/2) in the logarithmic term. The original poster, Peter, expresses confusion regarding the integration process and the appearance of this factor in the correct answer provided by others.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of integration by parts and substitution methods, with Peter questioning the necessity of trigonometric substitution. Others suggest simpler substitution techniques and point out potential errors in Peter's reasoning regarding the integration process.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of different integration techniques, with some participants providing clarifications and corrections to Peter's approach. Acknowledgment of a careless error has been made, indicating a productive direction in understanding the problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of correctly applying substitution methods and the implications of missing factors in integration results. The discussion highlights the challenges of integrating functions involving inverse trigonometric identities.

prace
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Hello,

I have a question regarding some simple integrals. For the life of my I cannot seem to get the right answer. I know the solution to the problem, but my answer seems to missing an ever so important (1/2) from the equation. Here is what I have:

The probelm is this, ∫tan^(-1)x dx.
[This is the indefinate integral of the inverse tangent of x]

When I work the problem out, my answer comes out to be:

xtan^(-1)x - ln|1+x²|+C

However, the answer that my professor and calculator give me is

xtan^(-1)x - (1/2)ln|1+x²|+C

Any thoughts of where this (1/2) is coming from?

To come to this answer, I first used integration by parts (uv-∫vdu) and used tan^(-1)x as u and (1/(1+x²)) for du. I then took x^0 for dv and x as v.

The next substitution I made was to set x = tan(θ) which made dx = sec²(θ) dθ.

To find θ after I completed the integration, I made a triangle and found that sec(θ) was 1+x². Substituting that back into the equation gives me my final answer of:

xtan^(-1)x - ln|1+x²|+C.

I hope that explanation made sense. I can explain in more depth if needed.

Thank you,

Peter
 
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You don't have to do nearly so much work in the second integral--just substitute u = x^2 + 1. Most likely your error was in forgetting to introduce a square root sign when you determine sec(θ), but I'm not sure where that comes in at all since when I do it with your substitution I have to determine cos(θ) instead.
 
Last edited:
Hi,

Thanks for the reply. I tried to substitute u = x^2 + 1, but then du will then = 2x dx no? The second integral does not have another x to use. I don't know if I am saying that clearly or not. I guess what I am trying to say is that if the integral is to evaluate 1/(1+x^2) dx, then you cannot choose to substitute u as 1 + x^2 because du will not make sence. That is why you have to solve the equation with trig substitution.

If I am totally off here, please let me know. This is just my thinking and if you know a way so that I do not have to use trig sub and just u sub then that would be awesome.

As for the second part of your response, I don't see where I should have a square root sign. Is there any way I could ask you to elaborate a little more?

Thank you so much for your help so far, I really appreciate everything.

Peter
 
No, Prace.
You have clearly misunderstood how to do this, so I'll go through the details:
[tex]\int\tan^{-1}(x)dx=x\tan^{-1}(x)-\int\frac{xdx}{1+x^{2}}[/tex]
The substitution [itex]u=1+x^{2}\to{du}=2xdx[/itex] leads to:
[tex]\int\frac{xdx}{1+x^{2}}=\frac{1}{2}\int\frac{du}{u}=\frac{ln|u|}{2}+C=\frac{ln(1+x^{2})}{2}+C[/tex]
 
prace said:
Hi,

Thanks for the reply. I tried to substitute u = x^2 + 1, but then du will then = 2x dx no? The second integral does not have another x to use. I don't know if I am saying that clearly or not. I guess what I am trying to say is that if the integral is to evaluate 1/(1+x^2) dx, then you cannot choose to substitute u as 1 + x^2 because du will not make sence. That is why you have to solve the equation with trig substitution.

You definitely do NOT have to usea trig substitution.

If u = 1 + x2

then
du = 2x*dx
so it follows that
du/2 = x*dx which is what you should have in that integral and so you can substitute du/2 in.
 
OH MAN! Wow, I can't believe I overlooked that. It completely makes sense now. Arrr... I hate errors like that where it is not misunderstanding of the technique or the problem, but a careless error that could have totally been avoided. Thank you so much for everyone's help and sorry if I wasted peoples time with careless errors.
 

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