- #36
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Please take a look at attached calculation.Is there some simple easy trick I am missing that makes this much easier than ? You can tell me privately if you wish.
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Please take a look at attached calculation.Is there some simple easy trick I am missing that makes this much easier than ? You can tell me privately if you wish.
Thanks. It does seem simpler with the ##1## in the denominator.Please take a look at attached calculation.
But for x=3i makes some of the denominators of the identity zero...@bob012345, multiply the identity ##\dfrac{1}{(x+3i)(x-3i)} = \dfrac{A}{x + 3i} + \dfrac{B}{x-3i}## by the factor ##(x-3i)##, and then set ##x = 3i## (you can do this because the identity holds for all ##x##). And do a similar thing to find ##A##.
If you multiply both sides by one of the factors, say ##x-3i##, solve for ##A## and then set ##x=3i## it works. Cancel those terms before you make the substitution.But for x=3i makes some of the denominators of the identity zero...
That's the idea, so you can find A, then do x=-3i and find B.But for x=3i makes some of the denominators of the identity zero...
I think it is being suggested this is like the proof ##1=2##.That's the idea, so you can find A, then do x=-3i and find B.
Emmm, by multiplying both sides by (x-3i) and then making x=3i, you will not fall into any error, it is valid to do so.If you multiply both sides by one of the factors, say ##x-3i##, solve for ##A## and then set ##x=3i## it works. Cancel those terms before you make the substitution.
You can think of it like this:But for x=3i makes some of the denominators of the identity zero...
This is exactly how I would do it.Please take a look at attached calculation.
No, not at all. I think you might be referring to the post by ergospherical.I think it is being suggested this is like the proof ##1=2##.
An important point is that the equation above is an identity: one that is is true for all values of the variable x, excepting only ##x = \pm 3i##. For any values of x other than these two, we can multiply both sides of the equation by ##(x + 3i)(x - 3i)## to get this equation:ergospherical said:multiply the identity ##\dfrac{1}{(x+3i)(x-3i)} = \dfrac{A}{x + 3i} + \dfrac{B}{x-3i}## by the factor ##(x-3i)##, and then set ##x = 3i## (you can do this because the identity holds for all ##x##). And do a similar thing to find ##A##.
hehe, I use Quora more so my answers are usually complete aum, I'm not used to this forum at all hehe.It should not have been left to the reader to do first the multiplication of the identity by x-3i, it should have been explicitly mentioned by @ergospherical :D.
ThenThanks. It does seem simpler with the ##1## in the denominator.
I just used a basic trig with ##tan(\theta)= \large\frac{x}{a}## and it worked fine.Then
[tex]\int \frac{dx}{x^2+2}= \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\int\frac{d\frac{x}{\sqrt{2}}}{(\frac{x}{\sqrt{2}})^2+1}=...[/tex]
The image in post #36 shows why this substitution works. For ##x^2 + 2##, the length of the leg adjacent to the angle is ##\sqrt 2## rather than 1.I just used a basic trig with ##tan(\theta)= \large\frac{x}{a}## and it worked fine.
Of course and the point I made was the method I used works for any ##a##. That's why I used ##a## and not ##1##. I found it easier than manipulating the integral first to make it a ##1## or using complex numbers.The image in post #36 shows why this substitution works. For ##x^2 + 2##, the length of the leg adjacent to the angle is ##\sqrt 2## rather than 1.
I tried it and it was not easier by any means.Now try it with a hyperbolic trig substitution.