- #1
bernhard.rothenstein
- 991
- 1
I find in some textbooks the following generalization of the Galileo transformations
x=k(x'+vt')
x'=k(x-vt)
with the same k because if we transform from I to I' or from I' to I then the distortion factor of lengths or time intervals should be the same.
Are there objections?
x=k(x'+vt')
x'=k(x-vt)
with the same k because if we transform from I to I' or from I' to I then the distortion factor of lengths or time intervals should be the same.
Are there objections?